Les meilleures IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 IIA-CIA-Part3 IIA-CIA-Part4 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: IIA-CIA-Part2
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 2, Conducting the Internal Audit Engagement)
Questions et réponses: 427 Q&As

Code d'Examen: IIA-CIA-Part3
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 3, Business Analysis and Information Technology)
Questions et réponses: 1554 Q&As

Code d'Examen: IIA-CIA-Part4
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 4, Business Management Skills)
Questions et réponses: 535 Q&As

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NO.1 What would be used to determine the collectability of accounts receivable balances?
A. The file of related shipping documents.
B. Negative accounts receivable confirmations.
C. Positive accounts receivable confirmations.
D. An aged accounts receivable listing.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following would be an appropriate improvement to controls over large
quantities of consumable material that are charged to expense when placed in bins which are
accessible to production workers?
A. Relocate bins to the inventory warehouse.
B. Require management to compare the cost of consumable items used to the budget.
C. Lock the bins during normal working hours.
D. None of the above actions are needed for items of minor cost and size.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following situations might allow an employee to steal checks sent to an
organization and subsequently cash them?
A. Checks are not restrictively endorsed when received.
B. Only one signature is required on the organization's checks.
C. One employee handles both accounts receivable and purchase orders.
D. One employee handles both cash deposits and accounts payable.
Answer: A

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NO.4 An audit of management's quality program includes testing the accuracy of the cost-of-quality
reports provided to management. Which of the following internal control objectives is the focus of
this testing?
A. To ensure compliance with policies, plans, procedures, laws, and regulations.
B. To ensure the accomplishment of established objectives and goals for operations or programs.
C. To ensure the reliability and integrity of information.
D. To ensure the economical and efficient use of resources.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following procedures would provide the best evidence of the effectiveness of a
credit-granting function?
A. Observe the process.
B. Review the trend in receivables write-offs.
C. Ask the credit manager about the effectiveness of the function.
D. Check for evidence of credit approval on a sample of customer orders.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following would be most helpful to a governmental auditor searching for the
existence of multiple welfare claims that were filed under different names but used the same
address?
A. Tagging and tracing.
B. Generalized audit software.
C. Integrated test facility.
D. Spreadsheet analysis.
Answer: B

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NO.7 During an operational audit of a chain of pizza delivery stores, an auditor determined that cold
pizzas were causing customer dissatisfaction. A review of oven calibration records for the last six
months revealed that adjustments were made on over 40 percent of the ovens. Based on this, the
auditor:
A. Has enough evidence to conclude that improperly functioning ovens are the cause.
B. Needs to conduct further inquiries and reviews to determine the impact of the oven variations on
the pizza temperature.
C. Has enough evidence to recommend the replacement of some of the ovens.
D. Must search for another cause since approximately 60 percent of the ovens did not require
adjustment.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following would be a red flag that indicates the possibility of inventory fraud?
I.The controller has assumed responsibility for approving all payments to certain vendors.
II.The controller has continuously delayed installation of a new accounts payable system, despite a
corporate directive to implement it.
III.Sales commissions are not consistent with the organization's increased levels of sales.
IV.Payments to certain vendors are supported by copies of receiving memos, rather than originals.
A. I and II only.
B. II and III only.
C. I, II, and IV only.
D. I, III, and IV only.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: IIA-CIA-Part4
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 4, Business Management Skills)
Questions et réponses: 535 Q&As

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NO.1 Paul Hersey and Ken Blanchard developed a situational leadership model with two
dimensions:task and relationship behaviors. In this model, the delegating leadership style is
appropriate when followers have:
A. Low maturity.
B. Low to moderate maturity.
C. Moderate to high maturity.
D. High maturity.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The dimensions of the delegating leadership style are low task and low relationship. Consequently,
task- and relationship-related behaviors are low. The leader provides little direction or support
because the maturity of followers is high. They are willing and able to do what is necessary.

NO.2 According to research on the international contingency model of leadership, which path-goal
leadership style is most likely to be accepted around the world as culturally appropriate?
A. Directive.
B. Participative.
C. Supportive.
D. Achievement-oriented.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A participative style entails consultation with employees and serious attention to their ideas. The
participative style, although not always the best, is the most widely accepted internationally. Every
country surveyed found it to be culturally acceptable.

NO.3 Some studies show that managers spend 60 to 70% of their time communicating and that
nearly 60% of that time is spent listening. Listening effectiveness is best increased by:
A. Resisting both internal and external distractions.
B. Waiting to review key concepts until the speaker is through talking.
C. Tuning out messages that do not seem to fit the meeting purpose.
D. Factoring in biases to evaluate the information being given.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Concentrating on what the speaker is saying is critical to effective listening. This result is best
achieved by resisting internal and external distractions. Physical distractions such as noise, a
tendency to be overly aware of the speaker's physical and other differences from the listener,
focusing on interesting details at the expense of major points, or emotional reactions to a statement
with which the listener disagrees should be avoided.

NO.4 The competitive factor that may lead to industry overcapacity is
A. A favorable interest rate charged by suppliers of capital.
B. A short lead time for capacity expansion.
C. The existence of first mover advantages.
D. Integration of competitors.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
First mover advantages may be significant. Thus, short lead times for ordering equipment, lower
costs, and the ability to exploit an excess of demand over supply may encourage too many firms to
expand.

NO.5 Strategic management includes developing the organization's grand strategy. This strategy is
based on:
A. Existing strategic business units (SBUs).
B. A SWOT analysis.
C. Portfolio management of the organization's businesses.
D. Strategic planning.
Answer: B

IIA examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part4   IIA-CIA-Part4
Explanation:
Strategic management is a process that includes development of a grand strategy that describes
how the organization's mission is to be achieved. This strategy is based on a situational analysis that
considers organizational strengths and weaknesses (a capability profile) and their interactions with
environmental opportunities and threats. Such an evaluation is also called a SWOT analysis.
Strengths and weaknesses (the internal environment) are usually identified by considering the firm's
capabilities and resources. What the firm does particularly well or has in greater abundance are
known as core competencies. Opportunities and threats (the external environment) are identified
by considering macroenvironment factors (economic, demographic, political, legal, social, cultural,
and technical) and microenvironment factors (suppliers, customers, distributors, competitors, and
other competitive factors in the industry).

NO.6 A corporation is performing research to determine the feasibility of entering the truck rental
industry.The decision to enter the market is most likely to be deterred if:
A. Buyer switching costs are high.
B. Buyers view the product as differentiated.
C. The market is dominated by a small consortium of buyers.
D. Buyers enjoy large profit margins.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
When purchasing power is concentrated in a few buyers or when buyers are well organized, their
bargaining power is greater. This effect is reinforced when sellers are in a capitalintensive industry,
such as trucking.

NO.7 Which of the following is false with regard to email policies?
A. Employees may use informal writing because email is often informal in nature.
B. Employees should understand that the organization has a legal right to monitor the employees'
use of the email system.
C. Filters should be used to protect against spam.
D. Emails should be concisely written.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The principles of good writing still apply to emails. Therefore, emails should be written like any
other formal communication within the organization.

NO.8 Which of the following is least likely to be an example of synergy?
A. A shopping mall with several businesses providing different products and performing different
services.
B. A car dealership providing warranties on automobile parts to maximize customer value.
C. A manufacturing company hiring a new manager with technological experience lacking in the
company.
D. Military Humvees being converted into sports utility vehicles for sale to civilians.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Synergy occurs when the combination of formerly separate elements has a greater effect than the
sum of their individual effects.
However, a car dealership's provision of warranties reflects anoperational strategy designed to
provide post-purchase services to gain a competitive advantage and maximize customer value. It
does not reflect the complementary sharing of resources, technology, or competencies. In contrast,
synergy arises from selling a line of carsthat share some components or abrand identification.

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Code d'Examen: IIA-CGAP
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Government Auditing Professional)
Questions et réponses: 327 Q&As

Code d'Examen: IIA-CIA-Part2
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 2, Conducting the Internal Audit Engagement)
Questions et réponses: 427 Q&As

Code d'Examen: IIA-CFSA
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Financial Services Auditor)
Questions et réponses: 511 Q&As

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NO.1 Internal auditors, engaging in activities that are illegal and discreditable to the profession of
internal auditing or the organization, violate which of the following principles:
A. Objectivity
B. Awareness
C. Integrity
D. Competence
Answer: C

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NO.2 While performing consulting services internal auditors should specifically maintain:
A. Proficiency level
B. Objectivity
C. Competence
D. Confidentiality
Answer: B

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NO.3 Nature of internal audit activities and quality criteria against which the performance of these
services can be evaluated is best portrayed by:
A. Performance Standards
B. Attribute Standards
C. Implementation Standards
D. Evaluation Standards
Answer: A

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NO.4 Reasonable assurance relates to the:
A. Audit planning process
B. Scope of the internal audit
C. End of the audit process
D. Whole audit process
Answer: D

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NO.5 "Internal auditors make a balanced assessment of all the relevant circumstances and are not
unduly influenced by their own interests or by others in forming judgments." This statement best
explains one of the following principles:
A. Competency
B. Confidentiality
C. Objectivity
D. Integrity
Answer: C

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NO.6 All these statements elaborate purpose of standards EXCEPT:
A. Foster improved organizational processes and operations
B. Establish the basis for the evaluation of internal audit performance
C. Subvert the framework for performing and promoting broad range of value-added internal audit
activities.
D. Delineate basic principles that represent the practice of internal auditing as it should be
Answer: C

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NO.7 IIA's code of ethics applies to __________ that provide internal auditing services:
A. Individuals
B. Entities
C. Individuals and entities
D. Individuals, entities and indirect authorities
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following situation would not impair audit objectivity?
A. An auditor is assigned to audit a business function that the auditor was responsible for nine
months ago
B. An individual temporarily assigned to the internal audit activity because of the individual'sexpert
knowledge in a particular business function assigned to audit an activity that theindividual was
responsible for just prior to transferring to the internal audit activity
C. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the
auditor participated in the design process
D. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the
auditor performed a procedure review and made control recommendations prior to the system's
implementation
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: IIA-CCSA
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certification in Control Self-Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 270 Q&As

Code d'Examen: IIA-CIA-Part3
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 3 study guide with online review)
Questions et réponses: 1554 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT the rule of integrity?
A. Perform duty with honesty and responsibility.
B. Observe law and make disclosures expected by law.
C. Knowingly engage in acts that are discreditable to the organization.
D. Respect to and contribute to the legitimate objectives of the organization.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is Correct?
A. Internal auditing is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add
value and improve an organization's operations.
B. Take guidelines to analyst conflicts of internal auditing.
C. Required orientation and continuing education regarding audits.
D. Assets are safeguards for internal audits.
Answer: A

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NO.3 The purpose of Control self-assessment is:
A. to make analysis through interviews
B. to find report issued by auditors
C. through which internal control effectiveness is examined and assessed
D. to focus on policies and procedures that are strategy compliance
Answer: C

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NO.4 In traditional approach, evaluating risks and controls were done by auditors and in control
self-assessment approach it is done by work teams.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is Correct?
A. In traditional approach, reporting was done by work teams and in control selfassessment
approach it is done by auditors.
B. In traditional approach, reporting was done by auditors and in control self-assessment approach
it is done by work teams.
C. In traditional approach, setting business objectives were done by auditors and in control
self-assessment approach it is done by management.
D. In traditional approach, accessing risks were done by auditors and in control selfassessment
approach it is also done by auditors.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Internal auditors have which following four principles to uphold and apply.
A. Integrity, Objectivity, Control and Confidentiality
B. Integrity, Objectivity, Confidentiality and Competency
C. Reliability, Objectivity, Timeliness and Competency
D. Integrity, Objectivity, Discretion and Expertise
Answer: B

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NO.7 In traditional approach, objectives used were of management's and in control selfassessment
approach it is of work teams'.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 A methodology that can be used by managers and internal auditors to assess the adequacy of
an organization's risk management and control processes is called:
A. Control self-assessment
B. Control certifications
C. Managerial control
D. Risk control
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: IIA-CIA-Part2
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 2, Conducting the Internal Audit Engagement)
Questions et réponses: 220 Q&As

IIA-CIA-Part2 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/IIA-CIA-Part2.html

NO.1 Which of the following would be an appropriate improvement to controls over large
quantities of consumable material that are charged to expense when placed in bins which are
accessible to production workers?
A. Relocate bins to the inventory warehouse.
B. Require management to compare the cost of consumable items used to the budget.
C. Lock the bins during normal working hours.
D. None of the above actions are needed for items of minor cost and size.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is a weakness that is inherent in the use of the test data method to
test internal controls in a computer-based accounting system?
A. The auditor must test many transactions with the same condition in order to achieve assurance
that the condition is being detected.
B. Conditions that were not specifically considered by the auditor may go untested.
C. The approach requires the creation of "dummy companies," possibly destroying or altering actual
company data in the process.
D. Inclusion of atypical data in the test data may cause errors to be noted on the exception report.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following situations might allow an employee to steal checks sent to an
organization and subsequently cash them?
A. Checks are not restrictively endorsed when received.
B. Only one signature is required on the organization's checks.
C. One employee handles both accounts receivable and purchase orders.
D. One employee handles both cash deposits and accounts payable.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following would be a red flag that indicates the possibility of inventory fraud?
I.The controller has assumed responsibility for approving all payments to certain vendors.
II.The controller has continuously delayed installation of a new accounts payable system, despite a
corporate directive to implement it.
III.Sales commissions are not consistent with the organization's increased levels of sales.
IV.Payments to certain vendors are supported by copies of receiving memos, rather than originals.
A. I and II only.
B. II and III only.
C. I, II, and IV only.
D. I, III, and IV only.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When assessing the risk associated with an activity, an internal auditor should:
A. Determine how the risk should best be managed.
B. Provide assurance on the management of the risk.
C. Modify the risk management process based on risk exposures.
D. Design controls to mitigate the identified risks.
Answer: B

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NO.6 An organization's internal auditors are reviewing production costs at a gas-powered electrical
generating plant. They identify a serious problem with the accuracy of carbon dioxide emissions
reported to the environmental regulatory agency, due to computer errors. The auditors should
immediately report the concern to:
A. The regulatory agency.
B. Plant management.
C. A plant health and safety officer.
D. The risk management function.
Answer: B

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NO.7 During an operational audit of a chain of pizza delivery stores, an auditor determined that cold
pizzas were causing customer dissatisfaction. A review of oven calibration records for the last six
months revealed that adjustments were made on over 40 percent of the ovens. Based on this, the
auditor:
A. Has enough evidence to conclude that improperly functioning ovens are the cause.
B. Needs to conduct further inquiries and reviews to determine the impact of the oven variations on
the pizza temperature.
C. Has enough evidence to recommend the replacement of some of the ovens.
D. Must search for another cause since approximately 60 percent of the ovens did not require
adjustment.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What would be used to determine the collectability of accounts receivable balances?
A. The file of related shipping documents.
B. Negative accounts receivable confirmations.
C. Positive accounts receivable confirmations.
D. An aged accounts receivable listing.
Answer: D

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NO.9 The most effective way for internal auditors to enhance the reliability of computerized
financial and operating information is by:
A. Determining if controls over record keeping and reporting are adequate and effective.
B. Reviewing data provided by information systems to test compliance with external requirements.
C. Determining if information systems provide management with timely information.
D. Determining if information systems provide complete information.
Answer: A

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NO.10 An internal auditor is assigned to conduct an audit of security for a local area network (LAN) in
the finance department of the organization. Investment decisions, including the use of hedging
strategies and financial derivatives, use data and financial models which run on the LAN. The LAN is
also used to download data from the mainframe to assist in decisions. Which of the following
should be considered outside the scope of this security audit engagement?
A. Investigation of the physical security over access to the components of the LAN.
B. The ability of the LAN application to identify data items at the field or record level and implement
user access security at that level.
C. Interviews with users to determine their assessment of the level of security in the system and the
vulnerability of the system to compromise.
D. The level of security of other LANs in the company which also utilize sensitive data.
Answer: D

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NO.11 An audit of management's quality program includes testing the accuracy of the cost-of-quality
reports provided to management. Which of the following internal control objectives is the focus of
this testing?
A. To ensure compliance with policies, plans, procedures, laws, and regulations.
B. To ensure the accomplishment of established objectives and goals for operations or programs.
C. To ensure the reliability and integrity of information.
D. To ensure the economical and efficient use of resources.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following procedures would provide the best evidence of the effectiveness of a
credit-granting function?
A. Observe the process.
B. Review the trend in receivables write-offs.
C. Ask the credit manager about the effectiveness of the function.
D. Check for evidence of credit approval on a sample of customer orders.
Answer: B

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NO.13 When internal auditors provide consulting services, the scope of the engagement is primarily
determined by:
A. Internal auditing standards.
B. The audit engagement team.
C. The engagement client.
D. The internal audit activity's charter.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following would be most helpful to a governmental auditor searching for the
existence of multiple welfare claims that were filed under different names but used the same
address?
A. Tagging and tracing.
B. Generalized audit software.
C. Integrated test facility.
D. Spreadsheet analysis.
Answer: B

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NO.15 A manufacturing process could create hazardous waste at several production stages, from
raw materials handling to finished goods storage. If the objective of a pollution prevention audit
engagement is to identify opportunities for minimizing waste, in what order should the following
opportunities be considered?
I.Recycling and reuse.
II.Elimination at the source.
III.Energy conservation.
IV.Recovery as a usable product.
Treatment.
A. V, II, IV, I, III.
B. IV, II, I, III, V.
C. I, III, IV, II, V.
D. III, IV, II, V, I.
Answer: B

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