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2014年8月28日星期四

Pass4Test offre une formation sur IBM C4040-108 A2090-919 matériaux examen

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Code d'Examen: C4040-108
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Enterprise Technical Support for AIX and Linux -v2)
Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A2090-919
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: System Administrator for Informix Server 11.70)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 A company which sells books and DVDs runs their business on AIX Enterprise Edition on a
Power
795. They have LPARs running back-office applications and other LPARs supporting their Internet
based retail operations. They are considering a policy of switching between TurboCore mode and
MaxCore mode, depending on workload. Which of the following considerations will have the most
impact on the customer's business?
A. The managed system will need to be restarted to change modes.
B. There will be fewer cores available when using TurboCore mode.
C. There will be less L3 cache available per core when using MaxCore mode.
D. The applications running on the affected LPARs must support MaxCore and TurboCore modes.
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator attempts to migrate a running LPAR using the 'migrlpar' command. :
What task will help the administrator determine the cause of the errors?
A. Validate the configured attributes on the Properties tab of the LPAR profile.
B. Validate that the VIO servers have the Mover Service Partition (MSP) attribute set.
C. Validate that the required CPU entitlements are available on the destination server.
D. Validate that the Logical Memory Block (LMB) size is consistent between both source and
destination.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which power reduction technology requires a software component in order to be activated?
A. Power capping
B. Processor folding
C. Static power saving
D. Processor core nap mode
Answer: A

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NO.4 A system administrator must provide network access to a single VLAN for multiple partitions
on a Power 795 server. The Power 795 server has a pair VIO Server (VIOS) partitions, with a Shared
Ethernet Adapter (SEA) in each one. Each SEA will use a single-port Ethernet adapter as a backing
device. Both SEAs must support network traffic so both adapters are used simultaneously. Network
service must be resilient. All client partitions must be able to maintain network access to this VLAN
through either VIOS partition if the other VIOS partition fails or is taken out of service. Which of the
following configurations would satisfy this goal?
A. The SEAs are both connected to the same virtual switch. Both SEAs are configured for SEA failover.
The client LPARs are configured with one virtual Ethernet adapter
B. The SEAs are each connected to separate virtual switches. Both SEAs are configured for SEA
failover. The client LPARs are configured with one virtual Ethernet adapter.
C. The SEAs are both connected to the same virtual switch. Neither SEA is configured for SEA failover.
The client LPARs are configured with NIB on two virtual Ethernet adapters.
D. The SEAs are each connected to separate virtual switches. Neither SEA is configured for SEA
failover. The client LPARs are configured with NIB on two virtual Ethernet adapters.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following commands traces a processes system calls, received signals, and
machine faults?
A. prof
B. topas
C. truss
D. mpstat
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following commands will enable the SEA accounting?
A. chacct -dev ent14 -attr enable
B. optimizenet -set accounting=enabled
C. chsea -dev ent14 -attr accounting=enable
D. chdev -dev ent14 -attr accounting=enabled
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer has an existing deployment of IBM i LPARs running on POWER6 hardware. The
customer is planning to add new AIX and IBM i LPARs on the same hardware. To avoid purchasing
additional adapters, there is a requirement for the new LPARs to be completely virtualized. What
virtualization options exist for hosting IBM i and AIX LPARs?
A. Virtualization Engine (VE)
B. N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)
C. Advanced Power Virtualization (APV)
D. Network Server Description (NWSD) and VIO Server
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer backs up a database using tools provided by the vendor. The backup files are
written to a filesystem that was initially created for use by the database, but the backup takes an
unexpectedly long time. Which of the following methods will decrease the time required for
backups?
A. Use the vmo command to increase WriteBehind.
B. Switch on Concurrent I/O for target filesystems.
C. Switch off Concurrent I/O for target filesystems.
D. Use the backup tools provided with the operating system.
Answer: C

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2014年6月29日星期日

Les meilleures IBM A2090-919 P2170-016 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: A2090-919
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: System Administrator for Informix Server 11.70)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

Code d'Examen: P2170-016
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM IOC Intelligent Transportation Technical Mastery Test v1 )
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 To enable network encryption, what two steps must the administrator complete? (Choose two.)
A. Enter the CSM name in thesqlhosts file.
B. Set the IFX_ENCCSMonconfig parameter to 1.
C. Define the CSM in the concsm.cfg configuration file.
D. Enter the CSM name in theonconfig NETTYPE parameter.
E. Set the environment variable ENCCSMCFG to the name of the CSM.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which statement about mapped user functionality is true?
A. Mapped users cannot execute distributed operations.
B. Mapped users are allowed to run with multiple names.
C. The DBSA can control the access to tables at a row level using security labels.
D. The DBSA can grant database server access to externally authenticated users with no local account.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following activities does the Secure-Auditing Facility NOT monitor and record?
A. Specific rows.
B. Specific users.
C. Specific tables.
D. Specific DML operations.
Answer: A

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NO.4 How is the DBSSO group determined on a Unix system with role separation?
A. It is always the groupinformix.
B. It is set using theonsecurity command line tool.
C. It is the group that owns $INFORMIXDIR/dbssodir.
D. It is the group specified in the DBSSOonconfig parameter.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement about auditing is NOT true?
A. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows in the table.
B. You can enable auditing row updates just for a subset of rows in the table.
C. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows from all tables in the database except for system
catalog tables.
D. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows from all tables in the database and for the system
catalog tables.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following privileges is NOT valid for a table fragment?
A. ALL
B. INSERT
C. UPDATE
D. CREATE INDEX
Answer: D

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NO.7 What output is NOT reported by the dbschema utility?
A. The database logging mode.
B. The schemas of remote databases.
C. The table definitions without owner names.
D. Theonspaces commands to re-create your systems' dbspaces.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which sysmaster table can be queried to find the logging status of a database?
A. sysdb
B. sysdblog
C. sysdatabases
D. sysdblogstatus
Answer: C

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2014年2月4日星期二

IBM A2090-919, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: A2090-919
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: System Administrator for Informix Server 11.70)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 When a SELECT statement is executed which statement is true?
A. The number and duration of the locks is dependent on the ISOLATION LEVEL.
B. If COMMITTED READ isolation is in place then the SELECT will never encounter any locking errors.
C. Within a transaction the database server will place row or page locks on anonlogging table.
D. If the SELECT is part of an UPDATE cursor then the database server will place an exclusive lock on
the entire dataset.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which command line utility displays real time statistics about the instance?
A. dbinfo
B. onstat
C. dbschema
D. onmachinfo
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following privileges is NOT valid for a table fragment?
A. ALL
B. INSERT
C. UPDATE
D. CREATE INDEX
Answer: D

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NO.4 To enable network encryption, what two steps must the administrator complete? (Choose two.)
A. Enter the CSM name in thesqlhosts file.
B. Set the IFX_ENCCSMonconfig parameter to 1.
C. Define the CSM in the concsm.cfg configuration file.
D. Enter the CSM name in theonconfig NETTYPE parameter.
E. Set the environment variable ENCCSMCFG to the name of the CSM.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which statement about the scope of UPDATE STATISTICS is true?
A. If the FOR PROCEDURE keywords are included but the name of any SPL routine is not specified, an
error will be returned.
B. If the FOR TABLE keywords are used without specifying the name or synonym of a table, the database
will not recalculate distributions for any table in the current database.
C. If the FOR TABLE keywords are specified with a table but without specifying a list of columns, the
database server will not recalculate distributions on all of the columns of the specified table.
D. If the FOR PROCEDURE specification, Table and Column Scope, and Resolution clauses are NOT
included, then the statistics are updated for every table and SPL routine in the current database.
Answer: D

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NO.6 For a given procedure name, what is the objective of the SQL query shown below?
A. The query returns the ordered text form of the specified procedure body.
B. The query returns the ordered compiled form of the specified procedure body.
C. The query returns both ordered text and ordered compiled form of the specified procedure body.
D. The query returns neither the ordered text nor the ordered compiled form of the specified procedure
body.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which role can create, alter, or delete trusted context objects?
A. DBA
B. DBSA
C. DBSSO
D. DBSECADM
Answer: D

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NO.8 What output is NOT reported by the dbschema utility?
A. The database logging mode.
B. The schemas of remote databases.
C. The table definitions without owner names.
D. Theonspaces commands to re-create your systems' dbspaces.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which SQL Administration API command will merge non-contiguous table extents?
A. shrink
B. defragment
C. table repack
D. merge extents
Answer: B

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NO.10 How is the DBSSO group determined on a Unix system with role separation?
A. It is always the groupinformix.
B. It is set using theonsecurity command line tool.
C. It is the group that owns $INFORMIXDIR/dbssodir.
D. It is the group specified in the DBSSOonconfig parameter.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which statement about auditing is NOT true?
A. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows in the table.
B. You can enable auditing row updates just for a subset of rows in the table.
C. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows from all tables in the database except for system
catalog tables.
D. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows from all tables in the database and for the system
catalog tables.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which sysmaster table can be queried to find the logging status of a database?
A. sysdb
B. sysdblog
C. sysdatabases
D. sysdblogstatus
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two corrective actions may be taken if following message is logged in the online message log
during a failed attempt to bring an instance online? (Choose two)
18:15:44
Size of resident + virtual segments 100000KB + 60000KB > 150000KB
18:15:44
total allowed by configuration parameter SHMTOTAL
A.
Decrease SHMADD
B.
Increase SHMTOTAL
C.
Decrease SHMBASE
D.
Increase SHMVIRTSIZE
E.
Decrease buffer pool size
Answer: B,E

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NO.14 Why do automatic checkpoints cause the database server to trigger more frequent checkpoints?
A. To avoid LRU flushes.
B. To ensure the buffer pool is always available.
C. To ensure theonstat -g ckp report is accurate.
D. To avoid transaction blocking during checkpoints.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following activities does the Secure-Auditing Facility NOT monitor and record?
A. Specific rows.
B. Specific users.
C. Specific tables.
D. Specific DML operations.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which onstat command will allow the gathering of statistics about the Informix Database Scheduler
tasks that are currently running or scheduled to be run?
A. onstat -g dbc
B. onstat -g sch
C. onstat -g adm
D. onstat -g tsk
Answer: A

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NO.17 What does the ovbuff field of an onstat -p output show?
A. The number of times that a buffer was read.
B. The number of times a buffer was extended.
C. The number of times that any buffer was overwritten.
D. The number of times the instance ran out offree buffers.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which statement about mapped user functionality is true?
A. Mapped users cannot execute distributed operations.
B. Mapped users are allowed to run with multiple names.
C. The DBSA can control the access to tables at a row level using security labels.
D. The DBSA can grant database server access to externally authenticated users with no local account.
Answer: D

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NO.19 By default, the alarm program gets executed for which event(s)?
A. All events.
B. Only for events with Severity code 1.
C. Only for events with Severity code 5.
D. Only for events with Severity code greater than 1.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which statement regarding default roles is true?
A. An administrator can define a default role to assign only to the PUBLIC group for a particular database.
B. The privileges associated with a default role takes precedence over the privileges granted to an
individual user.
C. An administrator can define a default role to assign to individual users or to the PUBLIC group for a
particular database.
D. When a user connects to a database, it is necessary to use the SET ROLE DEFAULT statement in
order to gain the default role privileges.
Answer: C

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