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Code d'Examen: HP0-790
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP ProCurve Routing Switch Essentials v5.21)
Questions et réponses: 57 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the size of the address range specified in the following ACL entry? access-list 1 permit
192.168.192.0 0.0.1.255?
A.256 addresses
B.512 addresses
C.1,024 addresses
D.65,536 addresses
E.16,777,216 addresses
Correct:B

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NO.2 A customer network includes a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m and several 5300xl switches. If
the 5300s are configured at default, which protocol must be enabled on the 9300m in order for all
the switches to participate in a single Spanning Tree domain?
A.IEEE 802.1X
B.IEEE 802.1Q
C.IEEE 802.1s
D.IEEE 802.1w
Correct:D

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NO.3 You must set 802.1w Bridge Priorities for a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m and a Switch 5300xl.
What is a difference between the Bridge Priority settings on these two models?
A.On the 9300m, the Bridge Priority is set at actual value. The 5300xl uses a multiplier.
B.The 9300m supports 4096 Bridge Priority values. The 5300xl supports 16.
C.On the 5300xl, 0 is the lowest Bridge Priority. On the 9300m, 0 is the normal priority.
D.The 5300xl supports a separate Bridge Priority for each STP instance. On the 9300m, a single priority
is applied to all STP instances.
Correct:A

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NO.4 The global context in the running configuration of a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m includes
the spanning-tree single 802-1w command. However, each of the VLAN contexts includes the
spanning-tree command. How will the switch implement Spanning Tree?
A.The switch will implement the Spanning Tree version included in BPDUs it receives from neighbors.
B.The switch will implement a single instance of IEEE 802.1w.
C.The switch will not join a Spanning Tree because of the mismatch between configured versions.
D.The switch will implement per-VLAN IEEE 802.1D and ignore the global configuration command.
Correct:B

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NO.5 The administrator of a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m enters spanning-tree in the global
configuration context. Which Spanning Tree topology is enabled on the switch?
A.Single-instance Spanning Tree
B.Rapid Spanning Tree
C.Extended Spanning Tree
D.Per-VLAN Spanning Tree
Correct:D

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Dernières HP HP0-S18 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S18
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Which technology enables Fibre Channel to communicate between SAN
facilities over IP networks?
A. point-to-point Fibre Channel
B. extended Fibre Channel
C. storage tunneling
D. long distance macro bending
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the advantage of the iSCSI technology?
A. has no distance limitation
B. uses same data transmission protocol as Fibre Channel
C. provides support for ESCON protocol
D. is better than Fibre Channel technology for large database transfers and very large input/output
operations
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which memory protection technology can detect 2-bit errors in a single byte
and correct single-bit errors?
A. Automatic Parity Checking
B. Battery Backed Write Cache
C. Error Checking and Correcting
D. Error Detecting and Correction
Answer: C

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NO.4 What features are included in both HP Support Plus and HP Support Plus 24?
(Select two.)
A. extended business hours coverage
B. annual OS patch analysis
C. escalation management
D. Fix Time/Call-to-Repair
E. remote monitoring, analysis, and management
Answer: A, C

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NO.5 What is the benefit of SAS connectors?
A. SAS drives can be daisy-chained during configuration.
B. SAS connectors enable additional diagnostic features.
C. SAS uses the same electrical and physical interfaces as SATA.
D. SAS host controllers recognize SCSI protocols.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J18
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP StorageWorks EVA Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 206 Q&As

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NO.1 You want to add more drives into the cabinet of an EVA6100 with 8 shelves and 56 drives. What is the HP
best practice regarding this?
A.Always add drives into the array in multiples of eight.
B.Set the add disk option to automatic and add the drives.
C.Add all the drives at the same time to minimize disruption to the I/O path.
D.Add the drives into one shelf at a time because the data is stored on all disks in the array and the distribution
of the disks is not important.
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 You are preparing to upgrade an EVA5000 2C6D solution to an EVA6100 2C8D solution in a Windows
environment. What must be considered before the installation?
A.New array controllers are 1U higher than old controllers.
B.EVA6100 device switches have a greater installation height.
C.An M5214B enclosure cannot be used with an EVA6100 solution.
D.Different multipath software must be purchased to assure connectivity.
ANSWER: A

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NO.3 You set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an Enterprise Virtual Array to
single. What is the effect?
A.One disk is reserved as spare space.
B.Two disks are reserved as spare space.
C.A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
D.A one-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
ANSWER: C

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NO.4 Which replication method can cause an overcommit situation? (Select two.)
A.clone
B.Vsnap
C.snapclone
D.fully allocated snapshot
E.demand-allocated snapshot
ANSWER: BE

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NO.5 What is presented to the specified host if you complete the virtual disk presentation sequence in Command
View EVA without specifying a LUN?
A.LUN 0
B.the next available LUN number
C.the highest available LUN number
D.most recently presented LUN number
ANSWER: B

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NO.6 You set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an Enterprise Virtual Array to
double. What is the effect?
A.Two disks are reserved as spare space.
B.Four disks are reserved as spare space.
C.A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
D.A four-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
ANSWER: D

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NO.7 A Vraid5 virtual disk has been created in a 12-member disk group. What is the result of the loss of one disk?
A.addition of a new Redundant Storage Set
B.reordering of disks in each Redundant Storage Set
C.reduction in the number of Redundant Storage Sets
D.no change in the number of Redundant Storage Sets
ANSWER: C

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NO.8 Which statements are correct about using thin provisioning in an EVA environment? (Select two.)
A.Capacity utilization is increased.
B.Extension of a LUN cannot be automated.
C.Host agents must be installed on servers.
D.LUN shrink is not always supported for EVA.
E.It can be performed within Command View EVA.
ANSWER: AC

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NO.9 Which statements about mirrorclones are correct? (Select two.)
A.A detached mirrorclone cannot be reattached to its source.
B.If the mirrorclone is in a normalized state, you can only detach it.
C.HP recommends keeping mirrorclones in the same disk group as the source.
D.The redundancy (Vraid) level of a mirrorclone must be the same or higher than the source.
E.A mirrorclone delta restore may be made when the mirrorclone source is also the source for a DR group.
ANSWER: AE

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NO.10 Which statement best describes virtual disk leveling?
A.subgrouping drives within a disk group to allow failure separation
B.distributing all user data proportionally across all spindles within a virtual disk
C.distributing all user data proportionally across all spindles within a disk group
D.allocating space per disk group to recover from physical disk failure in that group
ANSWER: C

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NO.11 You have a disk group set to double protection level that contains only Vraid1 virtual disks. What happens
when you have the simultaneous loss of two physical disks from different mirrored pairs within the same
Redundant Storage Set (RSS)?
A.Vraid1 data migrates to Vraid5.
B.The Vraid1 fails and there is data loss.
C.The Vraid1 data from the failed disks are reconstructed.
D.The Vraid1 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and data is preserved.
ANSWER: C

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NO.12 A disk group member failure occurs with a Vraid5 virtual disk. What happens to the data if the disk group
has assigned spare space and there is also enough available free space?
A.Data from the failed disk are reconstructed into a snapclone.
B.Data from the failed disk are reconstructed into the free space.
C.Data from the failed disk are reconstructed into the default disk group.
D.Data from the failed disk are reconstructed into the allocated spare space.
ANSWER: B

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NO.13 What is a physical segment (PSEG) in the Enterprise Virtual Array context?
A.smallest virtual disk space allocated on a disk drive
B.smallest physical disk space allocated on a disk drive
C.disk space containing information about the selected redundancy level of the virtual disk
D.data portion read from or written to a physical disk before the next physical disk is accessed
ANSWER: B

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NO.14 What are features of FATA disk technology? (Select two.)
A.greater than 80% duty cycle
B.extensive command queueing
C.designed for 24 by 7 availability
D.no native Fibre Channel interface on FATA disks
E.same capacity at similar cost as Fibre Channel-SCSI disks
ANSWER: BC

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NO.15 Which statement is correct about the allocation policy of snapshots?
A.If one snapshot in a disk group is created using allocation on demand, all snapshots in the same disk group
must use allocation on demand.
B.If one snapshot in a virtual disk family is created using allocation on demand, other snapshots in the same
virtual disk family can be fully allocated snapshots.
C.If the first snapshot in a virtual disk family is created using the fully allocated method, all subsequent
snapshots in the same disk group must be fully allocated.
D.If the first snapshot in a virtual disk family is created using allocation on demand, all subsequent snapshots in
the same virtual disk family will use allocation on demand.
ANSWER: D

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NO.16 What are components of the EVA 4100/6100/8100 Foundation Service?
A.Pre-Sales Consulting, 2-year hardware support, 2-year phone-in support and update
B.Pre-Sales Consulting, 3-year hardware support, 3-year phone-in support and update
C.Installation and Startup, 2-year hardware support, 2-year phone-in support and update
D.Installation and Startup, 3-year hardware support, 3-year phone-in support and update
ANSWER: C

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NO.17 You create a Vraid0 LUN in an EVA with 16 disks consisting of two 8-drive RSS sets. What will happen if a
single disk fails?
A.The LUN will fail even with an RSS configured.
B.The LUN cannot be configured across two RSS sets.
C.The LUN will continue to operate normally due to the redundancy provided by the RSS sets.
D.The LUN will continue to operate at reduced performance while the RSS sets rebuild the lost data.
ANSWER: A

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NO.18 How does releveling occur after the loss of one disk in a 16-member group containing ten 10GB Vraid1
Vdisks?
A.across 10 disks in the group
B.across 14 disks in the group
C.across 15 disks in the group
D.across 16 disks in the group
E.The group does not need to relevel.
ANSWER: B

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NO.19 Which EVA base models include loop switches? (Select two.)
A.EVA4100 2C4D
B.EVA6100 2C4D
C.EVA6100 2C6D
D.EVA8100 2C2D
E.EVA8100 2C8D
ANSWER: CE

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NO.20 What happens to the Vraid5 when two disk drives residing in different Redundant Storage Sets go into the
Failed State simultaneously? (Select two.)
A.The Vraid5 fails and there is data loss.
B.Data on the remaining disk drives are releveled.
C.The data from the failed disk drives are reconstructed.
D.The two failed drives go into the migrating state to preserve the data.
E.The Vraid5 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and the data are preserved.
ANSWER: BC

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S17
Nom d'Examen: HP (Integrating and Managing HP BladeSystem in the Enterprise)
Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

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NO.1 Which industry standard processor options are supported in the HP BL460c Server Blade? (Select two.)
A.Dual-Core Intel Xeon
B.Quad-Core Intel Xeon
C.Dual-Core Intel Itanium2
D.Dual-Core AMD Opteron
E.Quad-Core AMD Opteron
ANSWER: AB

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NO.2 A BladeSystem enclosure is managed by one Onboard Administrator that failed. Which functionality is
still available? (Select two.)
A.iLO 2 is accessible.
B.All fans are up and running.
C.Server blades can access the SAN.
D.New server blades can be added and powered up.
E.New interconnect devices can be added and powered up.
ANSWER: BC

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NO.3 Which industry standard protocols are used by HP SIM? (Select two.)
A.XML
B.TFTP
C.iSCSI
D.WBEM
E.NetBEUI
ANSWER: AD

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NO.4 Your customer wants to replace an existing c3000 Enclosure with a c7000 Enclosure. Which
components from the c3000 Enclosure can be reused in the c7000 Enclosure? (Select three.)
A.fans
B.power supplies
C.interconnect modules
D.server and storage blades
E.Onboard Administrator module
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.5 Which interconnect option creates domains and stacks LAN modules across c7000 Enclosures?
A.GbE2c Ethernet
B.Virtual Connect Ethernet
C.Ethernet Pass-Thru Module
D.Virtual Connect Fibre Channel
ANSWER: B

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NO.6 You are administrating several c-Class enclosures and are looking for a unified authentication system
for all iLO cards and Onboard Administrator modules.
What is the proper solution?
A.HP Protect Tools
B.Credential Manager
C.Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
D.Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
ANSWER: D

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NO.7 An administrator needs to monitor performance of every drive connected to the Smart Array controller.
Each drive is configured as a single logical drive.
Which tool can be used?
A.Insight Diagnostic
B.Radia Performance Manager
C.Performance Management Pack
D.Windows Server Performance Monitor
ANSWER: C

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NO.8 Which industry standard memory technologies are supported in a BL465c Server Blade? (Select two.)
A.memory sparing
B.memory mirroring
C.memory interleaving
D.ECC and Advanced ECC
E.833MHz maximum speed DIMMs
ANSWER: CD

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NO.9 Which service features are included in the Enhanced Network Installation and Startup Service for
BladeSystem Switches? (Select two.)
A.verification of operation
B.confirmation of software revisions
C.comprehensive porting and migration
D.systematic analysis of configurations for software patch version inconsistencies
E.proactive and rapid-response services to protect strategic operations against downtime risks
ANSWER: AB

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NO.10 Which industry standard memory technology can be used by Intel Xeon-based c-Class server blades
to provide additional protection against failed or degrading FB-DIMMs? (Select two.)
A.Advanced ECC
B.mirrored memory
C.registered DIMMs
D.online spare memory
E.interleaved memory support
ANSWER: BD

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NO.11 Which devices can be assigned an IP address through Enclosure Bay IP Addressing (EBIPA) for
c-Class server blades? (Select two.)
A.iLO 2 cards
B.interconnects
C.Insight Display
D.LAN interfaces of mezzanine cards
E.iSCSI target IP address on server blades
ANSWER: AB

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NO.12 After replacing a failed drive in a server blade, your customer complains about long logical drive time
recovery. What can you do to reduce recovery time?
A.Migrate the logical drive to RAID 6.
B.Install MPIO software on the server blade.
C.Set the rebuild priority to high on the controller.
D.Enable the Tagged Command Queuing (TCQ) feature on the hard drive.
ANSWER: C

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NO.13 Which industry standard technologies are compatible with the SB600c AiO Storage Blade? (Select
two.)
A.ATA
B.SAS
C.SCSI
D.iSCSI
E.SATA
ANSWER: BD

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NO.14 Which features does Virtual Connect Ethernet module (VC-Enet) provide in a network environment?
(Select two.)
A.VC-Enet can stack across four enclosures in a rack.
B.VC-Enet appears as an HP ProCurve device to other network devices.
C.VC-Enet will not add any new switches for the network administrator to manage.
D.VC-Enet domains can be created directly using the Onboard Administrator console.
ANSWER: AC

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NO.15 Which tool tests and evaluates the hardware and software configuration of systems where HP SIM is
installed or is being considered for installation?
A.Insight Control Advisor
B.HP SIM Capacity Planner
C.Active Answers Solution Sizer
D.Site Installation Preparation Utility
ANSWER: A

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NO.16 A customer wants to deploy a c7000 Enclosure and six server blades in a datacenter with limited
power. How can they ensure the solution fits within the available datacenter power envelope?
A.The customer needs to make sure they have at least 6750 watts of available power in every case.
B.Use the HP BladeSystem Sizer to determine how much power is needed for the configuration they want
to deploy.
C.Use the HP Rack and Power tool to determine how much power is needed for the configuration they
want to deploy.
D.Use the Enterprise Configurator in ActiveAnswers to determine how much power is needed for the
configuration they want to deploy.
ANSWER: B

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NO.17 Which interconnect module offered by HP has the capability of assigning a configuration profile to a
specific server blade?
A.GbE2c Switch
B.Cisco 3020 Switch
C.Virtual Connect Ethernet
D.Ethernet Pass-Thru Module
ANSWER: C

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NO.18 Which ProLiant Essentials Value Pack is an integrated power monitoring and management
application that provides centralized monitoring and control of datacenter power consumption and thermal
output?
A.Insight Power Manager
B.HP Rack and Power Manager
C.Performance Management Pack
D.Vulnerability and Patch Management Pack
ANSWER: A

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NO.19 Which service features are included in the Enhanced Network Installation and Startup Service for
BladeSystem Switches? (Select two.)
A.service planning interview
B.network device configuration
C.comprehensive porting and migration
D.systematic analysis of configurations for software patch version inconsistencies
E.proactive and rapid-response services to protect strategic operations against downtime risks
ANSWER: AB

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NO.20 You are replacing one of your redundant GbE2c interconnect switch modules in your c7000 Enclosure.
What must you be aware of when you install a replacement GbE2C switch with default settings into the
enclosure?
A.Crosslink ports are disabled and redundancy is lost between switches.
B.Crosslink ports are enabled and will cause a loop in your switch topology.
C.Uplink ports are disabled and must be enabled manually in the switch manager.
D.Downlink ports are disabled and must be enabled manually in the switch manager.
ANSWER: A

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NO.21 The Virtual Connect Fibre Channel module uses which type of Port ID Virtualization protocol to
aggregate multiple Fibre Channel HBAs over a smaller number of physical uplinks?
A.E_Port
B.F_Port
C.L_Port
D.N_Port
ANSWER: D

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NO.22 A customer that usually works with a c3000 Enclosure needs to use the external DVD drive on a
c7000 Enclosure and connect the drive to all servers in the c7000 Enclosure.
How can the external DVD drive on the c7000 Enclosure be accessed?
A.Use the DVD drive integrated in the c7000 Enclosure.
B.Use the DVD drive connected to the downlink port of the c7000 Enclosure.
C.Use the DVD drive connected to the USB port on an Onboard Administrator module.
D.Use the DVD drive attached through the serial/USB/video cable attached to any server blade.
ANSWER: C

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NO.23 What is the purpose of the HP StorageWorks SB40c Storage Blade?
A.provides a blade form factor tape solution for any server supporting the TCP/IP protocol
B.provides a blade form factor networked shared storage for any server supporting IP-based storage
(iSCSI)
C.provides additional storage capabilities dedicated to a single server blade within the same c7000
Enclosure
D.provides additional storage capabilities dedicated to a single server blade in another linked c7000
Enclosure
ANSWER: C

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NO.24 What is an advantage of a c7000 Enclosure compared to a c3000 Enclosure in an enterprise
environment?
A.N+N redundancy in the power subsystem
B.Virtual Connect and storage blade support
C.interconnect redundancy for integrated NICs
D.application of Onboard Administrator advanced license
ANSWER: C

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NO.25 Your customer is looking for an Ethernet interconnect with Fibre uplinks for their c7000 Enclosure.
Which interconnects should be considered? (Select two.)
A.GbE2c Switch
B.Infiniband switch
C.Cisco Catalyst 3020
D.GbE2c Layer 2/3 Switch
E.Ethernet Pass-Thru Module
ANSWER: CD

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NO.26 Which management suite delivers core management functionality for the HP BladeSystem solution,
including server deployment, health monitoring, performance monitoring, vulnerability scanning and patch
management?
A.HP Storage Essentials
B.HP Operations Software
C.Insight Control Environment
D.HP Systems Insight Manager
ANSWER: C

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NO.27 A customer has a Virtual Connect managed enclosure and needs to move one of the blades to a
non-virtual connect enclosure.
What should be done so that duplicate MAC addresses and WWNs do not appear in the datacenter due
to server blade deployment?
A.Enable the Reset to factory default switch on the blade system board.
B.Run the erase utility on the blade before plugging the server to the network.
C.First delete all MAC and WWNs configurations while the server is in the VC managed enclosure and
then move the server to the non-VC managed enclosure.
D.MAC addresses and WWNs are automatically returned to factory defaults when the server is moved to
the non-Virtual connect enclosure so no duplicate MAC addresses or WWNs appear.
ANSWER: D

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NO.28 Your customer has a c7000 Enclosure and two power supplies installed in bays 1 and 2. They are
switching from single-phase power to a three-phase power subsystem with full redundancy.
Which action is necessary to make this configuration work and be supported?
A.Install 4 additional power supplies.
B.Move the power supplies to bays 1 and 4.
C.Turn off the Dynamic Power Saver feature.
D.Enable three-phase power using the Onboard Administrator.
ANSWER: A

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NO.29 An administrator configures an HP c7000 Enclosure using Onboard Administrator. Which option can
be used to automatically configure IP addresses for all iLO cards and interconnect modules?
A.Insight Display
B.Virtual Connect Manager
C.Interconnect LAN Manager
D.Enclosure Bay IP Addressing (EBIPA)
ANSWER: D

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NO.30 A customer is looking for a virtualization solution for their data center. Their main area of concern is
server down time.
You have identified the x86-based virtualization candidates. Which platform best suits the customer's
needs?
A.scale-up
B.scale-out
C.Integrity VSE
D.single server virtual consolidation
ANSWER: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J25
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP StorageWorks AIS 2008 Delta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 When you add disks to a disk group on an EVA4400, what is a best practice to maintain
redundancy to multiple disk failures?
A. multiples of 2
B. multiples of 6
C. multiples of 8
D. multiples of the number of disk shelves
Answer: C

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NO.2 How do you acquire management access to fabric switches?
A. through the FCIP link
B. by using SmartStart EVA
C. by using a Telnet connection
D. through Command View EVA
Answer: C

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NO.3 On an EVA, which event log file is used to log disk shelf events?
A. Controller Event log file
B. Hardware Event log file
C. Storage Cell Event log file
D. Management Event log file
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which types of spares are available in an MSA2000? (Select three.)
A. vdisk spare
B. array spare
C. global spare
D. default spare
E. dynamic spare
F. dedicated spare
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 On an EVA4400, what is a requirement for a fully allocated snapshot in relation to its source?
A. It must be located in the same disk group.
B. It must be located in a different disk group.
C. It must be assigned to a higher redundancy level.
D. It must be assigned to the same redundancy level.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which controller components of an EVA4400 are customer replaceable?
A. only cache batteries
B. the entire shelf as one unit
C. all components that are available as spare parts
D. all components you can replace without opening the shelf
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which critical events does the Device Specific Module (DSM) impact? (Select three.)
A. error handling
B. bus initialization
C. request handling
D. device initialization
E. OS kernel interface
F. plug and play interface
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 What can you use to display performance data provided by the EVA?
A. SIM
B. SSSU.exe
C. Command View EVA
D. performance monitor of the Microsoft Windows operating system
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which MSA2000 feature disables cache mirroring in active-active mode and might improve
the I/O performance?
A. write-back cache mode (WBCM)
B. write-through cache mode (WTCM)
C. super-sequential cache mode (SSCM)
D. independent cache performance mode (ICPM)
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are starting Command View EVA by using the SmartStart EVA CD to manage a storage
system. Which statement is correct?
A. You must enable the Advanced mode in SmartStart EVA and right-click on the storage system icon.
B. You must specify the IP address of the management server and select the storage system to
manage within Command View EVA.
C. You must specify only the name of the storage system; SmartStart EVA will automatically locate
and start Command View EVA for this system.
D. You must start Command View EVA from the SmartStart EVA CD without installation and select
the storage system to manage within Command View EVA.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y17
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Secure Mobility Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 At a customer site, you have enabled and activated 802.1X authentication for ports 1-4 on a Switch
3500yl. VLAN membership of the ports is at default settings. Users connecting to the switch will
authenticate using Windows IAS and be assigned to VLANs based on policies applied by Identity Driven
Manager. You enter the following command:
3500.l(config)#aaa port-access authenticator ethernet 1-4 unauth-vid 33
What is the VLAN membership of these ports while no clients are connected?
A. VLAN 1
B. VLAN 33
C. VLAN assigned by IDM
D. VLAN assigned by RADIUS server
Answer: A

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NO.2 At a customer site, you have enabled routing on a Wireless Edge Services zl Module installed in a
5406zl switch. Under what circumstance is configuration of a default route on the module unnecessary?
A. when the 5406zl is the only router adjacent to the Wireless Module
B. when RIP is configured on the router upstream from the Wireless Module
C. when VLANs configured on the Wireless Module also are configured on other routers
D. when a default gateway has already been defined on the Wireless Module to enable Layer 2
connectivity
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is an advantage of implementing Layer 3 routing instead of Layer 2 forwarding on the Wireless
Edge Services zl Module?
A. It enables termination of user VLANs at the network edge.
B. It enables wireless users to have different access than wired users.
C. It enables the application of different security policies for wired and wireless users.
D. It enables communication between wireless users without using resources of the switch hosting the
module.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is an advantage of using Web-Auth, instead of 802.1X, for authentication of guests?
A. Web-Auth eliminates the need for data encryption.
B. Web-Auth places less load on enterprise RADIUS servers.
C. Web-Auth does not require the installation of supplicant software on client computers.
D. Web-Auth enables the authentication of devices that do not provide interfaces for users to enter
credentials.
Answer: C

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NO.5 In Identity Driven Manager, what is the default setting for access control based on time of connection?
A. Access is allowed at all times.
B. Access is not permitted at any time.
C. Access is permitted during normal business hours.
D. Access is permitted at times configured during installation.
Answer: A

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NO.6 When is the intrusion detection capability enabled on the Wireless Edge Services zl Module?
A. when routing is enabled
B. when the module is installed
C. when the first WLAN is enabled
D. when the built-in firewall is enabled
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is an advantage of configuring a ProCurve Radio Port for passive scanning instead of dedicated
scanning for rogue AP detection?
A. The RP can continue serving clients while scanning.
B. The RP can be assigned to a Quarantine VLAN in PCM+.
C. The RP can be configured to scan selected radio frequencies.
D. The RP can send SNMP traps to PCM+ when rogue APs are detected.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which ProCurve secure mobility solution requires the installation of a RADIUS agent on the enterprise
RADIUS server?
A. Access Point 530
B. Identity Driven Manager
C. ProCurve Mobility Manager
D. Wireless Edge Services zl Module
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which configuration step will enable a ProCurve Radio Port to obtain the IP address of a Wireless
Module during Layer 3 adoption?
A. Configure DHCP Relay on the Wireless Module.
B. Define the Wireless Module as a RADIUS client in Windows IAS.
C. Define Option 189 on the DHCP server for the scope serving the RP.
D. Configure IP helper on the RP's default gateway to forward requests to the Wireless Module's DHCP
server.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the rule governing the number and type of ACLs that can be applied to a VLAN on a Wireless
Edge Services zl Module?
A. The VLAN can support one IP ACL.
B. The VLAN can support one IP ACL or one MAC ACL.
C. The VLAN can support one IP ACL and one MAC ACL.
D. The VLAN can support all ACLs configured on the module.
Answer: A

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NO.11 On the Wireless Edge Services zl Module, which interfaces can be associated with a single IP ACL?
A. all VLAN interfaces and the downlink
B. all VLAN interfaces, the downlink, and the uplink
C. one VLAN interface, the downlink, and the uplink
D. all VLAN interfaces and either the downlink or the uplink
Answer: B

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NO.12 At a customer site, you must configure a Switch 5400zl and Identity Driven Manager to authenticate
Sales users and place them in VLAN 48. Which steps are necessary to complete this configuration?
(Select three.)
A. Configure VLAN 48 on the Switch 5400zl.
B. Enable 802.1X authentication for all affected switch ports.
C. Assign all affected switch ports to VLAN 48 as tagged members.
D. Define VLAN 48 as the unauthorized VID for all affected switch ports.
E. Add all Sales users to the list of RADIUS clients on the authentication server.
F. Define an IDM Access Profile and Access Rule associating Sales users with VLAN 48.
Answer: ABF

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NO.13 What is a difference between the Web-Auth features on the AP 530 and the Wireless Edge Services zl
Module?
A. The AP 530 does not support 802.1X for Web-Auth clients.
B. The AP 530 does not support WPA encryption for Web-Auth clients.
C. The AP 530 does not support customization of text on the Login page.
D. The AP 530 does not enable the loading of custom web pages from external servers.
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is an advantage of using the Wireless Module instead of the AP 530 to detect rogue APs?
A. The Wireless Module supports passive scanning as well as dedicated scanning.
B. The Wireless Module can be configured to require APs to submit 802.1X credentials.
C. The Wireless Module provides an administrative interface for identifying authorized and unauthorized
APs.
D. The Wireless Module's built-in firewall prevents users associated with unauthorized APs from
accessing network resources.
Answer: C

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NO.15 You have configured 802.1X authentication for four ports on a Switch 2600-8-PWR. One of the ports is
connected to an AP 530 in a conference room at a customer site. To ensure users connecting through
both devices have the same access rights, you have added the switch ports to an IDM Location that
already includes the AP 530. During a test, users connecting to the AP 530 are assigned to the correct
Access Policy. Users connecting through the switch ports receive the Default Access Policy. How can you
correct this configuration?
A. Edit the Location to support 802.1X over wired devices.
B. Add the switch and the AP 530 to the same group in Mobility Manager.
C. Configure 802.1X authentication on the switch port connected to the AP.
D. Set the WLAN parameter to ANY in the IDM Access Rule for the users.
Answer: D

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NO.16 You must configure an ACL on a Wireless Edge Services zl Module, and attach the ACL to VLAN 55.
This VLAN is associated with the Marketing WLAN on the module and does not exist on any other
infrastructure device in the customer network. When will traffic be filtered by this ACL?
A. when it arrives on VLAN 55 from a wireless client
B. only when it is forwarded from the module downlink to the module uplink
C. when it arrives from the wired network and is forwarded to VLAN 55 hosts
D. when it is routed from VLAN 55 to another VLAN configured on the module
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which statement describes the relationship between Identity Driven Manager and an enterprise
RADIUS server?
A. IDM acts as a graphical interface for the configuration of RADIUS policies.
B. IDM provides a RADIUS proxy server for users affected by IDM Access Rules.
C. IDM applies the RADIUS server's Remote Access Policies to authenticated users.
D. IDM enables the RADIUS server to specify VLAN assignments for authenticated users.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which secure mobility features are available on a standalone AP 530? (Select two.)
A. Web-Auth
B. built-in firewall
C. built-in RADIUS
D. VLAN-based ACLs
E. user-based policies
Answer: AC

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NO.19 When routing is enabled on a Wireless Module, which configuration is necessary on adjacent
enterprise routers?
A. a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP or OSPF
B. interfaces in all VLANs configured on the Wireless Module
C. DHCP relay for all VLANs configured on the Wireless Module
D. static routes to IP networks configured on the Wireless Module
Answer: D

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NO.20 At a customer site, you must configure three ports on a Switch 2610-24-PWR to authenticate users as
part of a unified wired and wireless solution that will use Identity Driven Manager to apply access policies.
Which device's IP address do you require for this configuration?
A. RADIUS server
B. PCM+/IDM server
C. Certification Authority
D. Windows Domain Controller
Answer: A

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NO.21 The management interface for the IDS on a Wireless Edge Services zl Module reports that the
configured threshold for excessive association attempts by a station is set to 0. What does this indicate?
A. The IDS has not detected any events of this type.
B. The IDS is not scanning for this type of event.
C. No RPs have been configured for intrusion detection.
D. No users are associated with WLANs configured for intrusion detection.
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which circumstance requires Layer 3 adoption of a radio port by a Wireless Edge Services zl Module?
A. The RP must be part of a Layer 3 mobility domain.
B. The RP is located in a different broadcast domain than the module's downlink.
C. The RP must support users who will be assigned IP addresses in different networks.
D. The RP must obtain an IP address for enforcement of ACLs configured on the module.
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which option is provided by the advanced customization feature for Web-Auth pages on the Wireless
Edge Services zl Module?
A. the ability to customize logos and text on Web-Auth pages
B. the ability to use Web-Auth pages stored on an external web server
C. the ability to install and use customized Web-Auth pages on the module
D. the ability to display different Web-Auth pages for failed and successful authentication
Answer: C

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NO.24 You must configure Identity Driven Manager to control access for five user groups to a file server at a
customer site. Which IDM object must be configured to enable you to identify this server in Access Rules?
A. Location
B. Access Policy
C. Access Profile
D. Network Resource
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which feature of the Wireless Edge Services zl Module enables the reporting of excessive
authentication attempts?
A. AP detection
B. built-in firewall
C. Access Control Lists
D. Intrusion Detection System
Answer: D

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NO.26 What is the purpose of the Guest Login feature on the AP 530?
A. enable guests to use the built-in guest account for Web-Auth
B. enable guests to register as users during the log-in process
C. enable guests to obtain certificates necessary for 802.1X authentication
D. enable guests to obtain IP addresses local to the AP during authentication
Answer: A

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NO.27 At a customer site, you have configured a Guest WLAN on a Wireless Edge Services zl Module. The
WLAN will use Web-Auth to authenticate Guest users, who will be placed in VLAN 55. What other step is
required to enable this configuration?
A. Enable IP routing for all VLANs configured on the module.
B. Configure a static route to VLAN 55 on the enterprise's routers.
C. Configure an IP interface associated with VLAN 55 on the module.
D. Add the address of the VLAN 55 default gateway to the module's Allowed List.
Answer: C

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NO.28 By default, which port or ports become members of VLAN 2100 when a Wireless Edge Services zl
Module is installed in a 5406zl switch?
A. Wireless Module uplink port
B. ports where PoE is enabled
C. Wireless Module downlink port
D. ports connected to PoE switches
Answer: C

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NO.29 You have configured AP detection on two Radio Ports connected to a Wireless Edge Services zl
Module. Which step is necessary to enable ProCurve Manager Plus with Mobility Manager to display
information about the detected APs?
A. Configure IP addresses on the RPs.
B. Configure SNMP traps on the Wireless Module.
C. Define a detection alert in the PCM+ Events viewer.
D. Add the RPs to a detection group in Mobility Manager.
Answer: B

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NO.30 You must configure a Wireless Edge Services zl Module so that clients will be subject to router-based
ACLs based on IP address range. Which module feature enables you to support this strategy?
A. DHCP relay
B. Layer 3 mobility
C. built-in RADIUS server
D. dynamic VLAN assignment
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J26
Nom d'Examen: HP (Designing and Implementing HP SAN Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 213 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Fibre Channel timing variables must match in an interoperable fabric?
A.Timing variables do not need to match.
B.R_A_TOV, E_D_TOV and B_B_TOV
C.R_A_TOV and E_D_TOV
D.R_A_TOV and B_B_TOV
Answer:C

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NO.2 Which HP tool provides the ability to create a Microsoft Visio diagram of a SAN topology for a
customer documentation?
A.SAN Health
B.SAN Designer
C.SAN Visibility
D.SAN Navigator
Answer:C

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NO.3 Which features can affect performance in a SAN? (Select three.)
A.cable modes
B.number of ISLs
C.type of LC connector
D.storage array configuration
E.type and capacity of disks used
F.storage access restrictions
Answer:B D E

HP   HP0-J26   HP0-J26   HP0-J26 examen

NO.4 You are preparing for a homogeneous fabric merge and notice the customer set the same
domain ID for all fabrics. What will happen if this is not corrected?
A.Enabled zone configurations are immediately disabled.
B.Domain IDs remain unchanged and the fabrics become segmented.
C.Domain IDs are automatically renumbered and the fabrics merge, but port zoning is affected.
D.Domain IDs are automatically renumbered and the fabrics merge without any side effect.
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which information should be included in the topology map documentation of a SAN design
provided to your support organization? (Select two.)
A.serial numbers of connected servers
B.SAN switch zoning configurations
C.storage controller operating mode parameters
D.IP addresses of the connected servers
E.World Wide Names of all nodes and devices
Answer:B C

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NO.6 You are implementing a SAN infrastructure including an HP StorageWorks EVA4400 at a
customer site. The customer is interested in using three-site cascaded replication functionality.
What should you recommend to accomplish this? (Select two).
A.HP StorageWorks FlexCopy
B.HP Continuous Access EVA
C.additional disks in the EVA
D.HP Virtual Replicator
E.HP Business Copy EVA
Answer:B E

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NO.7 To install additional switches, you must determine the ideal ISL ratio. Which ISL ratio range is
recommended for less I/O intensive application requirements (less than 70 MB/s at 2 Gb/s, less
than 140 MB/s at 4 Gb/s, less than 280 MB/s at 8 Gb/s)?
A.3:1 to 1:1
B.1:1 to 3:1
C.15:1 to 7:1
D.7:1 to 15:1
Answer:B

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NO.8 A single Fibre Channel router is implemented in an existing SAN. What can be accomplished?
A.fabric management service
B.fabric interconnection without merge
C.SAN availability improvement
D.SAN extension across long distances
Answer:B

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NO.9 You are preparing an installation plan for implementing a new SAN design and want to ensure all
customer needs are included. Which data collection method requires that you create a process
list and review all relevant stakeholders?
A.Card Arrangement
B.Information Extraction
C.Brainstorming
D.Process Mapping
Answer:B

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NO.10 What has the most influence on the response time of a hard disk drive?
A.arbitration
B.host request
C.rotational delay
D.seek time
Answer:C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J16
Nom d'Examen: HP (Introduction to HP SANs)
Questions et réponses: 59 Q&As

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NO.1 Which features are provided by Information Lifecycle Management? (Select two.)
A. measures to protect data from corruption through its life cycle
B. technologies and processes to dispose of outdated storage equipment
C. technologies and processes to organize data based on size and sensitivity
D. processes that enforce data-retention policies and make decisions about appropriate data storage
environments
E. technologies and processes that determine how to store, manage, and communicate information
according to its business value
Answer: DE

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NO.2 In the context of storage infrastructure management, what is the definition of the term target?
A. a goal set for errors on a device
B. an entity that needs management
C. a disk or tape connected to a SCSI bus
D. a vendor-specific management tool that connects to a device
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which target-based management software is expected to be provided with the storage component?
A. OS management suites
B. system management suites
C. network management suites
D. device-specific management tools
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are the processing requirements of Information Lifecycle Management? (Select two.)
A. fast
B. secure
C. auditable
D. transparent
E. easy to use
Answer: CD

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NO.5 Because Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) interfaces with activities and people, there is a
potential overlap between ILM and other areas. Which area is likely to overlap with ILM?
A. IT Budget Planning
B. IT Project Management
C. Business Financial Planning
D. Business Process Management
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is a common method for handling multiple reporting and monitoring functions?
A. Use graphical reports to enhance interpretation.
B. Combine all information into one report for simplicity.
C. Separate low-level information reporting from higher-level analysis and decision making.
D. Use intelligent interfaces to offload reporting and decision-making from management software.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which tasks are associated with controlling a target in a storage infrastructure management
environment?
A. discover, track, diagnose, and predict
B. diagnose, predict, repair, and migrate
C. configure, provision, repair, and migrate
D. report, bill, analyze, diagnose, and predict
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which industry standard organization approved the Storage Management Initiative Specification
(SMI-S)?
A. ITU
B. ANSI
C. IETF
D. IEEE
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are benefits of model-based automation? (Select two.)
A. more control
B. cost effectiveness
C. better organization
D. support for complex operations
E. reduced likelihood of human error
Answer: BE

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NO.10 To which category of target-based management tools does HP Systems Insight Manager belong?
A. system management
B. network management
C. storage systems management
D. operating system management
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J33
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP )
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statements are true about using thin provisioning in an EVA environment? (Select two.)
A. Extension of a LUN cannot be automated.
B. Capacity utilization is increased.
C. LUN shrink is not always supported for EVA.
D. Host agents must be installed on servers.
E. It can be performed within CommandView EVA.
Answer: BD

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NO.2 Which EVA virtualization features help reduce customer Total Cost of Ownership? (Select two.)
A. load customization
B. LUN definition ruleset
C. pre-set VRAID security
D. reduced stranded capacity
E. significantly increased utilization
Answer: DE

HP examen   HP0-J33   HP0-J33   HP0-J33

NO.3 What is the source of the identifying data that is inserted into the HP CommandView EVA SNMP MIB
when it is generated?
A. SMI-S agent on management host
B. hardware ASIC in the first host port that sends the event
C. default parse file
D. controller software-specific parse file
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which service is included in the EVA6400/8400 warranty?
A. HP Support Plus service
B. HP EVA Firmware Upgrade service
C. HP Implementation service
D. HP Installation & Startup service
Answer: D

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NO.5 How does releveling occur after the loss of one disk in a 16-member group containing ten 10GB
Vraid1 Vdisks?
A. The group does not need to relevel.
B. across 16 disks in the group
C. across 15 disks in the group
D. across 14 disks in the group
E. across 10 disks in the group
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which feature is unique to the EVA8400 / 11GB cache (per controller) model when compared to other
EVA array models?
A. use of a third cache battery
B. 400TB addressable storage space
C. up to 5GB policy memory
D. maximum of 27 device shelves
Answer: A

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NO.7 What happens when you set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an
EVA to single?
A. Two disks are reserved as spare space.
B. A one-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
C. One disk is reserved as spare space.
D. A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A disk group is set to double protection level and contains only Vraid1 virtual disks. What happens
when there is simultaneous loss of two physical disks from different mirrored pairs within the same
Redundant Storage Set?
A. The Vraid1 fails and there is data loss.
B. Vraid1 data migrate to Vraid5.
C. The Vraid1 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and data is preserved.
D. The Vraid1 data from the failed disks is reconstructed.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which components are mandatory Customer Self Repair (CSR) on an EVA4400, EVA6400 or
EVA8400 device shelf? (Select three.)
A. midplane
B. power supply
C. fan
D. backplane
E. disk drive
F. power UID board
Answer: BCE

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NO.10 What are functions of the web-based operator control panel of an EVA4400? (Select three.)
A. view OCP log messages
B. configure SMI-S credentials
C. restart a controller
D. perform disk firmware upgrade
E. enter WWN to initialize system
F. perform array firmware upgrade
Answer: ACE

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NO.11 Which interface is used to connect a FATA drive to an EVA controller? (Select two.)
A. single port
B. dual port
C. Serial ATA
D. Native Fibre Channel
E. Parallel ATA
Answer: BD

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NO.12 What is a physical segment (PSEG) in the EVA context?
A. smallest virtual disk space allocated on a disk drive
B. smallest physical disk space allocated on a disk drive
C. disk space containing information about the selected redundancy level of the virtual disk
D. data portion read from or written to a physical disk before the next physical disk is accessed
Answer: B

HP   HP0-J33   HP0-J33

NO.13 How do you access the web-based operator control panel after installing CommandView EVA on the
management module?
A. https://<storagesystem>:2373
B. https://<storagesystem>:2372
C. https://<storagesystem>:2301
D. https://<storagesystem>:2381
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which feature is unique to the EVA4400 compared to the EVA6400 and EVA8400?
A. support of 2048 LUNs
B. use of array-based management
C. RoHS 6 of 6 compliant disk shelves
D. large LUN support
Answer: B

certification HP   HP0-J33   HP0-J33   HP0-J33

NO.15 Which statements are true about mirrorclones? (Select two.)
A. If the mirrorclone is in a normalized state, you can only detach it.
B. The redundancy (Vraid) level of a mirrorclone must be the same or higher than the source.
C. Amirrorclone delta restore may be made when the mirrorclone source is also the source for a DR
group.
D. A detached mirrorclone cannot be reattached to its source.
E. HP recommends keeping mirrorclones in the same disk group as the source.
Answer: CD

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NO.16 What must be considered when configuring the Internet Protocol settings of an EVA4400
management module?
A. The WOCP requires an IPv6 network.
B. The IP address range is restricted.
C. A limited set of protocols is supported.
D. The localhost alias must be disabled.
Answer: B

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NO.17 for the HP EVA, where do you find error messages, status code values, meanings, and appropriate
corrective actions?
A. product replacement instructions
B. WEBES System Event Analyzer
C. product user guide
D. HP CommandView EVA
Answer: C

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NO.18 What are required customer self-repair (replacement) parts in an EVA6400/8400? (Select two.)
A. controller cache battery
B. controller cache memory
C. hard disk drives
D. disk enclosure fan
E. Fibre Channel transceivers
Answer: CD

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NO.19 You create a Vraid0 LUN in an EVA with 16 disks consisting of two 8-drive RSS sets. What will happen
if a single disk fails?
A. The LUN will fail even with an RSS configured.
B. The LUN will continue to operate normally due to the redundancy provided by the RSS sets.
C. The LUN cannot be configured across two RSS sets.
D. The LUN will continue to operate at reduced performance while the RSS sets rebuild the lost data.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which interconnect technology is used when integrating the mpx110 router into an EVA solution?
A. FCIP
B. FICON
C. iSCSI
D. WDM
Answer: A

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