EXIN meilleur examen ITIL, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: ITIL
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (ITIL V3 Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 369 Q&As

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NO.1 Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A

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NO.4 How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: B

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NO.6 The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill tominimize
the cost of training them
B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
Answer: C

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NO.8 Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following are managed by facilities management? Hardware within a data centre or
computer room Applications Power and cooling equipment Recovery sites
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following models would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
A. RACI model
B. Service Model
C. Continual Service improvement (CSI) model.
D. The Deming Cycle
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A

EXIN   ITIL   certification ITIL   ITIL   ITIL

NO.12 Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the continual service improvement
model/approach.?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually
improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we have arrived?; How do we
keep the momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan;
Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get
there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
What services to offer and to whom?
What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D

EXIN   ITIL   ITIL   ITIL   ITIL examen

NO.15 The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A

EXIN   ITIL   ITIL   ITIL examen

NO.16 Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill tominimize
the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
To automatically detect service affecting events
To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: B

EXIN   ITIL   ITIL examen   ITIL

NO.19 A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
Answer: A

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NO.20 In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B

EXIN   ITIL examen   ITIL

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Code d'Examen: EX0-113
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (TMap Next Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test specifications?
A. that the tests are reproducible
B. that the test specifications are transferable
C. that coverage of 100% is achieved
D. that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object
Answer: B

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NO.3 Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?
A. when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available
B. when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project
C. when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested
Answer: A

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NO.4 In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests
Answer: B

EXIN   EX0-113   EX0-113

NO.5 See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional and
non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things.
Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test
Answer: C

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EXIN EX0-101J examen pratique questions et réponses 「EX0-101日本語版」

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Code d'Examen: EX0-101J
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (ITIL Foundation V 3.0 & ITIL Foundation (EX0-101日本語版))
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 次のどちらが新しいサービスの実装 を 可能にするために、 サ ービスの移行に渡さ れ る
情報を含んでいますか。
A. サービス? オプション
B. サービストランジ ションパッケージ（STP ）
C. サービス? デザイン? パッケージ（SDP ）
D. サービス憲章
Answer: C

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NO.2 どのプロセスが IT サービスをモニターし、 パフォーマンスが下記の許容限度を下回る
ときに検知することに関係しますか。
A. サービス資産管理および構成管理
B. イベント管理
C. サービス? カタログ 管理
D. 問題管理
Answer: B

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NO.3 下記のどれがサ ービス? レベル管理の目的ですか。
A. 現在の IT サービスをサポートするために必要なサービス操作の活動を実施すること
B. 十分なキャパシテ ィーがサービス の合意 されたパフォー マンス を供給するため に提供 さ
れていること を確認すること
C. サービス? カタログ を作成し住むこと
D. IT サービスの合意されたレベルが現在のすべての IT サービスに提供されることを保証す
ること
Answer: D

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NO.4 どのプロセスは ビジネス、サービス、コンポーネントのサブプロセスを含みますか。
A. 容量管理
B. インシデント管理
C. サービスレベル管 理
D. 財務管理
Answer: A

EXIN   certification EX0-101J   EX0-101J examen   EX0-101J

NO.5 次のリストを考 慮してください:
1. 権限を変更
2. マネージャーを変更
3. 変更諮問委員会（CAB ）
下記のどれが上記の項目の最高の説明でしょうか。
A. ジョブの説明
B. 機能
C. チーム
D. 役割、人々または グループ
Answer: D

EXIN   EX0-101J   EX0-101J   EX0-101J   EX0-101J

NO.6 大事件は、下記 のどれを要求しますか。
A. 別のプロシージャ
B. より少ない緊急
C. より長い時間スケ ール
D. より少ないドキュ メンテーション
Answer: A

EXIN   certification EX0-101J   certification EX0-101J

NO.7 サー ビス· ライフサイクルのどの段階で、 新たなサービスを動作させるために必要なプ
ロセスが定義されるべきですか。
A. サービス設計：プロセスを設計する。
B. サービス戦略：製 品を開発する
C. サービス移行：配 備のために計画を立てて準備をする。
D. サービスオペレー ション：IT 運用管理
Answer: A

EXIN examen   EX0-101J   EX0-101J   EX0-101J   EX0-101J examen   EX0-101J

NO.8 下記のどちらが サービス要求の最高の説明ですか。
A. 情報（アドバイス）のための、または、標準的な変化のためのユーザーからの要請
B. 顧客はほしく、代 金を払う用意ができているもののすべて
C. セルフヘルプ Web ベースのインタフェースを介してユーザによって入力されるすべての
要求や需要
D. ローリスクで、 変更諮問委員会(CAB) 会 のない変更マネージャーによって承認することが
できる変更(RFC) の任意 の要請
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-670
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Networked Storage-CAS Installation/Troubleshooting Specialst)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 Which program has been specifically designed for small-sized and medium-sized businesses and
provides easy, cost-effective network support to help ensure reliable operations, contain costs, and
protect their investments?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Software Application Support Services
B. Cisco Focused Technical Support Services
C. Cisco Smart Foundation Service
D. Cisco SP Base
E. Cisco SMARTnet Onsite
Answer: C

EMC   E20-670   E20-670 examen   certification E20-670

NO.2 Which three products are targeted primarily for deployment in enterprise environments? (Choose
three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Cisco 1800 Series ISRs
B. Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switches
C. Cisco Catalyst 2960 Series Switches
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches
E. Cisco 7200 Series Routers
F. Cisco 2800 Series ISRs
Answer: BDE

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NO.3 What resource allows Cisco partners to get funding for preapproved activities, such as catalogs,
yellow pages, events, trainings, e-mail blasts, and advertising?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Joint Marketing Fund
D. Cisco Discovery
E. Steps to Success
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three of the following are benefits of Cisco TAC? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Direct or indirect access to the global Cisco TAC organization
B. The ability to access teams of experts
C. Onsite engineering support
D. Minimizes risks associated with network downtime
E. Upgrades from base Cisco IOS Software to advanced feature set Cisco IOS Software
F. Project management and planning support
Answer: ABD

EMC   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670

NO.5 Which stage of Cisco Lifecycle Services comprises services that ensure the design and deployment of
the desired network functionality?
Select the best response.
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
Answer: D

EMC   certification E20-670   certification E20-670

NO.6 What are four layers in the ARPA (TCP/IP) architecture?
A. Application, session, transport, and physical
B. Application, transport, network, and network interface
C. Presentation, network, data link, and network interface
D. Presentation, transport, data link, and physical
Answer: B

certification EMC   E20-670   E20-670

NO.7 What is the key element in SMB solutions?
Select the best response.
A. They provide the lowest possible cost.
B. They reduce the cost and complexity associated with multiple services in a single device.
C. They reduce complexity by eliminating features.
D. Consumer-level products are suitable for SMB needs.
E. Reliability is not important since replacement products are inexpensive.
Answer: B

EMC   E20-670 examen   E20-670

NO.8 Which portal provides timely and concise information for sales professionals in competitive situations?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: D

EMC   E20-670 examen   E20-670   E20-670

NO.9 In the OSI model, which layer would a router be defined in?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Network interface
D. Transport
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-670   certification E20-670

NO.10 Which type of deployment utilizes ISRs with Cisco IOS Security feature sets to provide an ideal,
low-cost, yet capable and powerful platform?
Select the best response.
A. Small deployments
B. Large deployments
C. Medium deployments
D. Commercial deployments
E. Financial deployments
Answer: A

EMC   E20-670   certification E20-670

NO.11 What feature does the Partner E-Learning Connection provide?
Select the best response.
A. Full versions of all Cisco technical-level classes
B. Live instructor-led, web-based classes
C. Flexible, web-based knowledge and learning
D. Hosted website that partners use to deliver e-learning to customers
E. Lists of training-partner class offerings
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which tool provides a complete guide that makes it easier for partners, regardless of their experience
level, to sell Cisco Unified Communications solutions to their customers?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: C

certification EMC   certification E20-670   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670

NO.13 On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communication system reside?
Select the best response.
A. Independent voice, video, and data networks
B. Voice networks only
C. A single, joined voice, video, and data network
D. Data networks only
E. Wireless networks only
Answer: C

certification EMC   certification E20-670   E20-670

NO.14 How many leading bits are used to determine the class of an Internet address?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which layer of the OSI model does FTP use?
A. Application
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Answer: A

EMC   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670

NO.16 Which technology is best deployed to meet the needs of users who desire secure remote access to
corporate resources?
Select the best response.
A. VPN-enabled routers
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager
E. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
Answer: C

certification EMC   E20-670   certification E20-670   E20-670 examen   certification E20-670

NO.17 Which network topology best describes how EMC Centera nodes are networked together?
A. Bus
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

EMC   E20-670 examen   certification E20-670   E20-670

NO.18 What are the three commonly recognized top-level business drivers for data centers? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Protecting the business from information outages
B. A need to decentralize IT assets
C. Increasing the rate of adoption of new, nonstandardized technologies
D. Optimizing the efficiency with which IT operates
E. An increased need for specialized IT silos
F. Growing IT systems
Answer: ADF

certification EMC   E20-670   E20-670   E20-670 examen   certification E20-670

NO.19 What type of approach is used to deploy, operate, and optimize Cisco solutions?
Select the best response.
A. Lifecycle advantages
B. Lifecycle services
C. Lifestyle services
D. Lifestyle advantages
E. Lifetime advantage
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-670   E20-670 examen   certification E20-670

NO.20 Which port number is used to communicate to an SMTP server?
A. 20 or 21
B. 22
C. 25
D. 321
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-322
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Technology Architect Solutions Design)
Questions et réponses: 568 Q&As

E20-322 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/E20-322.html

NO.1 A SQL Server implementation has been experiencing poor I/O performance. You are asked to identify
the root cause of the performance issues.
Which tool should you use for your analysis?
A.SQL Server Profiler
B.SQL Server Configuration Manager
C.SQL Query Editor
D.SQL Server VDI
Answer:A

EMC   certification E20-322   E20-322 examen   E20-322   E20-322 examen

NO.2 In addition to "Software as a Service" and "Infrastructure as a Service," which main category of service
falls within the definition of cloud computing?
A.Platform as a Service
B.Hardware as a Service
C.VM as a Service
D.Facility as a Service
Answer:A

certification EMC   E20-322   E20-322   certification E20-322

NO.3 A customer is looking for a best practice for a mission-critical Oracle application. They require a
point-in-time copy of their database for reporting in their Symmetrix environment. This point-in-time
environment must have no impact on production.
Which configuration would you recommend?
A.Synchronous R1 to R2; point-in-time clone off the R1s
B.Point-in-time clone off R1s, activated and mounted at the target
C.synchronous R1 to R2; point-in-time snap off the R1s
D.ynchronous R1 to R2; point-in-time clone off the R2s
Answer:D

EMC examen   certification E20-322   E20-322 examen

NO.4 You have been requested to provide a solution that will monitor resource best practices, create alerts
when the environment exceeds recommended boundaries, and requires no agents to be installed on the
network.
Which product will provide this capability?
A.Storage Configuration Advisor
B.EMC Ionix ControlCenter
C.SAN Advisor
D.Storage Insight for Availability
Answer:A

certification EMC   certification E20-322   certification E20-322   E20-322 examen   certification E20-322

NO.5 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library at their primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library at their disaster recovery site. They will be using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) as the backup
application. A small subset of the primary data needs to be transferred to a disaster recovery site where it
will eventually expire without TSM involvement.
What is a recommended feature to use with EMC Disk Library to transfer data to the disaster recovery
site?
A.Remote Copy
B.RecoverPoint
C.Active Engine Failover
D.Virtual Tape Migration
Answer:A

EMC examen   E20-322 examen   E20-322   certification E20-322   E20-322

NO.6 A customer is implementing a new DMX-4 system in their data center. They have decided to use
Enterprise Flash Drive (EFD) technology in their design for their critical Oracle database.
Which database objects would gain the least benefit from EFDs?
A.High transaction rate table/index
B.Lookup tables
C.Index
D.Redo logs
Answer:D

EMC examen   E20-322   E20-322

NO.7 Which product delivers simple automation to enable end-to-end virtual-to-physical mapping of physical
storage and servers, as well as ESX servers and the virtual machines that reside on them?
A.Navisphere Manager
B.Navisphere Analyzer
C.VMware Server
D.vCenter Server
Answer:A

certification EMC   E20-322   certification E20-322

NO.8 A customer has recently purchased Open Replicator and needs to know which GUI interface would be
best for administration.
What should be your response?
A.Navisphere Manager
B.SAN Advisor
C.Symmetrix Management Console
D.EMC Ionix ControlCenter
Answer:C

EMC   E20-322   E20-322   E20-322   E20-322 examen   certification E20-322

NO.9 You have been requested to create a SAN Advisor design that can accommodate 250 to 500 hosts.
Which component should be placed on its own dedicated host?
A.StorageScope Repository
B.EMC Ionix ControlCenter ECCAPI
D.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Repository
C.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Server
Answer:B

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NO.10 A customer uses an SCA appliance to provide environment discovery and compliance reports. The
current SCA implementation is experiencing workload issues due to the extremely large number of
objects being managed.
Which solution should you recommend to address this issue?
A.Increase the number of SCA external agents
B.Install an additional SCA appliance
C.Add an additional network interface to the SCA appliance
D.Increase the heap size on the EMC Ionix ControlCenter API server
Answer:B

EMC   E20-322   certification E20-322

NO.11 Your customer is experiencing performance issues with three CLARiiON-attached hosts and you've
already ruled out server hardware and network latency as possible causes. All of these hosts' LUNs are
part of the same RAID group, so you now need to determine which host's LUNs are causing the RAID
group's performance degradation.
Which Navisphere Analyzer data view would help you determine which LUNs are having the greatest
effect on the disks' performance?
A.Performance Detail line chart
B.LUN Performance Survey chart
C.I/O Distribution Size Detail chart
D.LUN I/O Disk Detail chart
Answer:D

EMC   certification E20-322   E20-322 examen   E20-322   certification E20-322   E20-322 examen

NO.12 A customer would like to eliminate tape from their backup environment. They do not have a SAN
infrastructure.
Which solution should you recommend?
A.EDL 4406
B.Symmetrix with SATA
C.CLARiiON CX with SATA
D.NS80 with internal VTLU
Answer:D

EMC examen   E20-322   E20-322

NO.13 A request has been made to collect the information that has been gathered by SAN Advisor. You notice
the data has not been collected.
In order for SAN Advisor to receive information about the environment, what service is used?
A.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Repository
B.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Server
C.EMC Ionix ControlCenter StorageScope Repository
D.EMC Ionix ControlCenter ECCAPI
Answer:D

EMC examen   E20-322   certification E20-322   E20-322

NO.14 You must design a backup solution for an existing Celerra NS80 customer. The customer has decided
that the expense of expanding their tape hardware infrastructure to support the additional load is not
justified because the data is for department-level user shares.
Which alternate solution should you use to back up the Celerra with minimal cost and disruption to their
current backup procedures?
A.Add an EMC Disk Library with 1 TB SATA drives
B.Add FC disks to the NS80 and back up using Celerra VTLUs
C.Add SATA disks to the NS80 and back up to disk
D.Add a second NS80 and replicate the backup data
Answer:C

certification EMC   E20-322   E20-322   E20-322 examen   E20-322

NO.15 A customer has implemented RecoverPoint to protect a Progress database and SQL Server as a
Federated database. Changes to the Progress database and SQL Server are asynchronously replicated
to the remote disaster recovery (DR) site.
What should be done to ensure consistent recovery at the DR site for this environment?
A.Put SQL Server and the Progress database briefly into a quiescent state before taking snapshots used
for recovery
B.Use the Write Ahead transaction Logging (WAL) mechanism on the Progress and SQL Server
databases
C.Use Peer To Peer Transactional Replication for both the SQL Server and Progress databases
D.Create periodic group set bookmarks to ensure that the two databases are periodically synchronized
Answer:A

EMC examen   E20-322   E20-322 examen   E20-322

NO.16 How often does SAN Advisor retrieve new information from EMC Ionix ControlCenter and identify
compliance violations?
A.Only when downloading the latest support information from an EMC website
B.Only when an alert has been triggered
C.Once per week
D.Once per day
Answer:D

EMC examen   certification E20-322   certification E20-322   E20-322

NO.17 You performed an analysis of the I/O profile of a SQL Server environment that has performance and
availability issues. Having identified disk contention as the primary problem, what would be your
recommendation?
A.Enable fast file initialization
B.Allocate additional spindles and migrate the transaction logs to the new RAID group
C.Move SQL transaction log and database files to the same RAID/disk group
D.Enable SQL Server to keep pages in memory
Answer:B

EMC examen   E20-322   E20-322 examen

NO.18 An organization currently uses a physical Storage Configuration Advisor (SCA) appliance to discover,
monitor, and report configuration compliance for 1,600 hosts. This number is expected to grow to 2,500 in
the near future. They would like to migrate this management function to virtual servers.
How many virtual SCA appliances are needed to meet this requirement?
A.5
B.3
C.4
D.2
Answer:C

certification EMC   E20-322 examen   E20-322   E20-322

NO.19 A business is planning to migrate a physical, Oracle 11g database environment to a virtualized VMAX
platform.
What would be the primary benefit to the business if such a migration were implemented?
A.Migrating to new servers or new storage devices would enable the business to maintain 100% uptime.
B.Virtualization would enable multiple Oracle database environments to run under one instance.
C.VMAX configurations would provide auto back-end load balancing configurations for Oracle dbf files.
D.Virtualization on VMAX storage would automatically lay out database objects.
Answer:A

EMC   E20-322   certification E20-322   E20-322   E20-322

NO.20 How does Atmos handle data protection?
A.SOAP
B.Replication
C.Rsync
D.REST
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: E20-329
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Technology Architect Backup and Recovery Solutions Design Exam)
Questions et réponses: 206 Q&As

E20-329 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/E20-329.html

NO.1 Acustomer is piloting a Data Domain appliance and notices that performance in the writing of backups is
not optimal. Based on the System Show Performance metrics represented in the exhibit, which operation
will provide the most improved the most improved performance?
A. Reduce the read streams
B. Suspend verification
C. Disable cleaning
D. Disable replication
Answer: A

EMC   E20-329 examen   E20-329 examen   E20-329

NO.2 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to use the deduplication option. The requirement for a database
server in their enviroment is to perform deduplication backups for file system data and NetWorker tape
backups for database data. They want to allow a maximum of two parallel streams for file system backups
and a maximum of four steams for database backups.
How can this be accomplished?
A.
B.
C.
Group: Bsckups
Parallelism: 0
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 2
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 4
D.
Group: Bsckups
Parallelism: 4
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 2
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 4
Answer: C

EMC   E20-329 examen   certification E20-329   certification E20-329   E20-329

NO.3 As illustrated in the exhibit, a customer has a backup environment that includes clients and server
managed by a backup media server. Data is written to a primary storage device and archived to an
application server. The customer has onsite retention strorage, which is replicated to a disaster recovery
site. In addition, archive-to-tape is requires.
Which components would you replace when initiating a Data Domain solution?
A. onsite retention storage and offsite disaster recivery storage
B. Backup media server and clients
C. Primary storage and onsite retention storage
D. Backup media server and archive application server
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-329   E20-329

NO.4 An organization is backing up a combination of databases, e-mail, and file system data types in their
data center to a Data Domain appliance using a single backup server. The backup system administrator
creates separate subdirectories for each of the three data types under the default share.
What benefit is provided by this approach?
A. Analyze compression with more granularity
B. Simplity backup device configuration
C. Enhance performance of the database backup
D. Improve file system cleaning performance
Answer: B

EMC   E20-329   E20-329 examen   E20-329

NO.5 A customer has a Data Domain appliance that has reached 90% of maximum capacity. The customer
does not want to purchase any additional storage.
Wht will increase the average available capacity of the Data Domain appliance?
A. Decrease the backup retention period
B. Increase the snapshot expiration period
C. Increase the nurrter of strearns
D. Decrease the cleaning frequency
Answer: A

EMC   E20-329   E20-329 examen

NO.6 The EMC account team has been asked to design a NetWorkwwe backup solution with the following
requirements.
1. One copy of backup data needs to be stored locally.
2. An additional copy of backup data needs to be stored on tape at an offsite location.
What should be done to satisfy the new regulations with minimal impact to the current backup
performance?
A. Clone to tape and send the clone copy to the remote location
B. Back up the data concurrently to the remote and local locations
C. Archive the backup data to the remote location
D. Archive the data to the remote location before being backed up locally
Answer: C

EMC   E20-329   E20-329   E20-329 examen

NO.7 A customer has an operational EMC NetWorker enviroment using an Avamar deduplication node. They
want to protect the Avamar deduplication node using replication. The customer has approached EMC for
advice on what considerations thaey should take into account.
What is a consideration in this envitonment.?
A. NetWorker automatically configures all replication targets associated with a given deduplication node
B. Scheduled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in Avamar
C. Recovery from the replications node must be performed from Avamar Administror
D. Schedled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in NetWorkwe
Answer: B

EMC examen   E20-329   certification E20-329

NO.8 An EMC Avamar customer s Gen-1 system with 4 TB of GSAN capacity has reached read-only
threshold. The customer indicates that the deduplicated backup data accounts for approximately 3.5 TB.
What is the most likely cause for the read-only threshold being reached?
A. Deduplication rate is less than expected, accounting for the remaining GSAN capacity
B. Combination of system overhead, logs, and checkpoints account for the remaining GSAN capacity
C. RAIN overhead accounts for the remaining available GSAN capacity
D. Checkpoints and logs account for the remaining GSAN capacity
Answer: C

EMC   E20-329   E20-329   certification E20-329   E20-329 examen

NO.9 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
Acustomer has a new Avamar server with four 2 TB data nodes. This server is backing up two Avamar
clients. The first client has 8 GB of RAM and two file systems. The first file system has 3 million files
consuming. 75 TB. The second file system contains 5 million files consuming 1 TB of space.
The second client has 10 GB of RAM and one file system containing 4 million files consuming 1.2 TB of
space. Both clients will belong to the same backup group. How long will the steady-state backup group be
expected to run?
A. 5 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 7 hours
D. 8 Hours
Answer: B

certification EMC   E20-329   certification E20-329   certification E20-329   E20-329

NO.10 A customer is using Data Protection Advisor (DPA) to moitor their backup enviroment. What is a
benefit of using remote Collectors?
A. Reduces the amount of information being transferred to the DPA server
B. Collects system-related statistics for a given host
C. Improves the collection performance of backup statistics
D. Provides more complete backup reports
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-818
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 161 Q&As

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NO.1 As reflected in the exhibit, a customer has a Cascaded SRDF/Star environment. Site B fails and they
undertake a reconfiguration to provide remote data protection between Sites A and C.
What is used to determine the invalid tracks that must be moved from Site A to Site C?
A.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site A
B.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site A and a bitmap at Site C
C.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site B
D.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site C
Answer:A

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NO.2 A customer wants to provide remote disaster recovery (DR) for several critical mailbox servers in their
Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. Local recoverability is provided by creating replicas of their
critical databases.
The customer's DR site is located 20 km away. They have already provisioned the necessary failover host
on the DR site, as well as the required Active Directory infrastructure needed to support a failover.
However, they want to minimize the total number of database copies required to provide basic failover
capabilities for the Exchange server.
Which solution would you recommend to provide remote point-of-failure recovery with the fewest local
and remote database copies?
A.R1-R2-BCV
B.Mixed Mirroring
C.STD-R1BCV-R2-BRBCV
D.STD-R1BCV-R2
Answer:A

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NO.3 A customer has been creating replicas of several Microsoft Exchange mailbox servers using Replication
Manager. They have recently added a new Exchange Server 2007 mailbox host to the environment.
In addition, the customer has created a scheduled job to create replicas of five storage groups in
consecutive order. Since doing so, they notice that the newly added replica jobs seem to take a very long
time to complete.
What is the source of the problem?
A.NTFS volumes containing the databases were not formatted with the correct cluster size
B.Replication Manager job should have been configured to create the replicas simultaneously
C.Latest Replication Manager Client Service Pack was not installed on the Exchange server
D.Exchange management utilities were not installed on the Replication Manager mount host
Answer:A

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NO.4 A new Cascaded SRDF customer is running in SRDF/A mode from the source (R1) site to the
disk-based secondary (R21) site. In this scenario, which SRDF mode is permitted between the R21 and
the R2 sites?
A.Adaptive Copy Disk
B.Adaptive Copy Write Pending
C.Synchronous
D.Asynchronous
Answer:A

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NO.5 A customer wants to use TimeFinder/Exchange Integration Module (TF/EIM) to create daily local
replicas of a critical Microsoft Exchange 2007 mailbox server. Using Terminal Services, they connect
remotely to the backup server and execute the following command:
exbackup2007 -v -vss -s [servername\] -preestablish
The command runs up until the point where TF/EIM attempts to mount the volumes, then it fails. Why is
the process unable to complete?
A.Exbackup is not supported using a terminal session
B.Correct VSS Provider was not installed
C."copyonly" switch must be specified the first time a backup is run
D.Exbackup does not have the permissions needed to run on the backup host
Answer:A

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NO.6 A customer has implemented Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 in an SRDF environment with replicas
being taken at the disaster recovery (DR) site. During testing of this solution, they have failed over
Exchange operations to the DR site. The Exchange mailbox server appears to come online, but user
mailboxes are inaccessible. The Exchange Management Console shows all mailboxes marked with a
small red "x" over the mailbox icons.
Which course of action will resolve this issue?
A.Ensure the Exchange mailbox server at the DR site can communicate with an Active Directory Domain
Controller
B.Recover the database from the BCV copies available at the DR site
C.Ensure that the World Wide Web service on the Exchange server at the DR site has started
successfully
D.Recover the database from the remote BCV copies available at the primary site
Answer:A

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NO.7 A customer is planning an SRDF/Star configuration as shown in the exhibit. The customer wants to
switch production to the synchronous target in the event of a workload site fault.
In addition to the Base and SRDF Solutions Enabler licenses, which licenses are recommended at the
synchronous target?
A.TimeFinder/Clone and TimeFinder/CG
B.TimeFinder/Mirror and TimeFinder/Clone
C.TimeFinder/Snap and TimeFinder/CG
D.TimeFinder/Snap and TimeFinder/Mirror
Answer:A

EMC   E20-818   E20-818

NO.8 An SRDF/Star solution has been proposed. The customer is slow to accept the solution because they
are concerned about the reliability of the RDF daemon.
How would you address the customer's concern?
A.RDF daemons will be deployed on multiple management stations at the workload site. The RDF
daemons will cooperate with each other.
B.RDF daemon process runs on the Symmetrix array and has built-in redundancy.
C.RDF daemon process runs on the Symmetrix array. If the workload site RDF daemon fails, the RDF
daemon from one of the other sites will take over.
D.RDF daemons will be deployed on one management station at each of the three sites. If the workload
site RDF daemon fails, one of the RDF daemons from the other two sites will take over.
Answer:A

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NO.9 A customer is running Concurrent SRDF/Star. The disaster recovery (DR) plan allows for the workload
to be switched to either the synchronous site or the asynchronous site. In addition, part of their DR plan is
to enable SRDF/Star protection once the workload site comes back online.
Which advice should be given to the customer?
A.If production fails over to the synchronous site, it is possible to run in a Star-protected configuration after
the return of the original workload site.
B.If production fails over to either the asynchronous site or synchronous site, it is not possible to run in a
Star-protected configuration from either site after the return of the original workload site.
C.If production fails over to either the asynchronous site or synchronous site, it is possible to run in a
Star-protected configuration from either site after the return of the original workload site.
D.If production fails over to the asynchronous site, it is possible to run in a Star-protected configuration
after the return of the original workload site.
Answer:A

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NO.10 An Microsoft Exchange administrator has recently encountered an issue with one of the databases in
their Exchange 2007 environment. The decision was made to perform a partial restore of only the single
database.
Based on EMC and Microsoft best practice, what are the proper ordered steps needed to complete this
task?
A.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Restore the database replica. 3) Remove the .chk
file from the system path folder. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
B.1) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 2) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
C.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
D.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Remount all databases in the storage group. 4) Restore the database replica.
Answer:A

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NO.11 In the event of a physical disk spindle failure, how would a customer with Microsoft SQL Server
maximize availability?
A.Logs should be on RAID 1 volumes with data volumes on separate RAID 6 volumes
B.Logs should be on RAID 1 volumes with data volumes on separate RAID 5 volumes
C.Logs and data files should be on separate RAID 5 volumes
D.Logs and data files should be on separate RAID 1-protected volumes
Answer:A

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NO.12 A Microsoft SQL Server database administrator wants to execute backups using Solutions Enabler SRM
functionality. Which ODBC variable(s) needs to be set to enable the symioctl and symrdb command set?
A.SYMCLI_RDB "CONNECT" and "TYPE" environment variables
B.SYMCLI_RDB "NAME" and "TYPE" environment variables
C.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "Connect" to the database "username/password"
D.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "TYPE" variable to "sqlserver"
Answer:A

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NO.13 Refer to the Exhibit.You have been asked to configure a Cascaded SRDF solution at a customer site.
The production site will be at Site A, the synchronous target will be at Site B, and the asynchronous target
at Site C.
Which kind of RDF devices will be needed at each site?
A.R1 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R2 at Site C
B.R11 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R22 at Site C
C.R11 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R2 at Site C
D.R1 at Site A, R2 at Site B, and R21 at Site C
Answer:A

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NO.14 A customer is migrating their Microsoft Exchange 2007 server from a NAS back end to a new
Symmetrix V-Max SE array. As illustrated in the exhibit, perfmon was used to create a log view of an
average day's activity against the database LUN of the busiest datastore in the Exchange environment.
This will serve as the performance benchmark for all other database LUNs. There are an additional four
mailbox databases on this server.
How many RAID 1-protected 15k rpm spindles are required to satisfy the performance needs of the
customer for all the mailbox databases on this server?
A.10
B.26
C.38
D.50
Answer:D

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NO.15 A customer has three data centers that are used to run SRDF/AR multi-hop on Symmetrix DMX-4
arrays.
Production is located at Site A
Secondary site is located at Site B
Tertiary site is located at Site C
In the event of a Site A failure, the customer wants to be able to fail over to Site C while retaining the
ability to have remote data protection. Which solution will offer the best RPO and RTO for this customer?
A.Cascaded SRDF
B.Latest version of SRDF/AR
C.Concurrent SRDF
D.SRDF/EDP
Answer:A

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NO.16 A customer's SQL database has been experiencing performance degradation every time a particular
query is run. When designing the storage layout, all user databases were properly sized according to
EMC best practices.
Which storage configuration could be the source of the problem?
A.Tempdb and user databases are sharing spindles
B.MDF and LDF files are not sharing spindles
C.RAID 5 protection has been used for Tempdb
D.Data files are spread over striped metavolumes
Answer:A

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NO.17 Group Name Services (GNS) is enabled in an SRDF/Star solution. What is a benefit of GNS in a
SRDF/Star environment?
A.Facilitates management of SRDF/Star when there are multiple management hosts at each location
B.Distributes the Star internal definition file to the Symmetrix arrays at both target locations
C.Propagates the composite group definitions over SRDF links
D.Restarts the SRDF daemon in the event it stops unexpectedly
Answer:A

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NO.18 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
A customer is migrating their SQL server from a NAS back end to a new RAID 1-protected Symmetrix
V-Max SE array. Perfmon was used to create a log view of an average day's activity against the database
LUN as represented in the exhibit. Unfortunately the database's data file and transaction log are located
on the same LUN. The database administrator has informed you that this database typically processes 25
GB worth of transactions over the course of their 12-hour business day.
Which discount in IOPS should be taken before determining the number of spindles required for the data
file LUN?
A.75
B.152
C.176
D.365
Answer:A

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NO.19 A composite group spanning two Symmetrix arrays is set up to run SRDF/Star using Cascaded SRDF
as illustrated in the exhibit. What is one of the necessary conditions before the SRDF daemon at Site A
will perform an MSC cycle switch?
A.Transmit delta sets from Site B to Site C have finished
B.SDDF bitmaps have been swapped at Site A
C.Invalid track count between Sites A and C is less than 30000
D.SYMCLI_STAR_ALLOW_CASCADED_CONFIGURATION option must be enabled in the option file
Answer:A

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NO.20 A customer wants to use Replication Manager to replicate and mount, at the file group level, a Microsoft
SQL Server database. What must be done before creating a Replication Manager file group replication
job?
A.Ensure no other data files are on the same volume with the selected file group
B.Copy the log files along with the file group data files
C.Use the recover database option when mounting a file group
D.Create a TimeFinder device group that contains only the file group data files
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: E22-290
Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC Data Domain Deduplication, Backup and Recovery Exam)
Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a benefit of snapshots on an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Requires ndisk space to store
B.Provides NDMP backups ta remote site
C.Included with the replication license
D.Provides data restoration from a specific point in time for deleted data
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the default behavior for messages log files in an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Every day at 06:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is deleted
B.Every Sunday at 03:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is deleted
C.Every Sunday at 03:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is renamed
D.Every day at 06:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is renamed
Answer: C

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NO.3 Why would you increase the MTU size on an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Maximize performance when using 10Gb Ethernet
B.Support Ethernet frames smaller than 1500 bytes
C.Support 1 Gb/s Ethernet frames
D.Maxi mize performance when using 100 Mb/s Fast Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which EMC Data Domain technology allows inline deduplication toccur fast and efficientty?
A.SISL scaling architecture
B.Data Domain Data Invulnerability Architecture
C.DDBoost
D.SATA
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer is implementing an EMC Data Domain system in their EMC NetWorker environment using
CIFS as illustrated in the exhibit A CIFS share named "bkp001" has been created on the Data Domain
system
How should the backup device be configured in NetWorker?
A.rd=sn_A\\dd01\bkp001
B.\\dd01\bkp001
C.rd=ddOl/bkp001
D.rd=server_A\\dd01\bkp001
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer has an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) environment with multiple EMC Data Domain
systems.Backups are stored on Data Domain system A and replicated to Data Domain system B.The
Tape Library contains a copy pool
Based on the exhibit, how many copies of the data must the TSM server database track at the primary
site?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.7 When using link aggregation across Ethernet ports on an EMC Data Domain system.which OSllayers
provide load balancing by use of the IP layer?
A.1 and3
B.1 and4
C.2and3
D.3and4
Answer: D

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NO.8 An organization currentvwites backups tan EMC Data Domain system and then creates encrypted
copies of their backups on tapes.These tapes are then shipped ta thi rd-party offsite vault
They are now planning tdeploy a second Data Domain system to a secure data center at their corporate
headquarters as a replication target treplace the use of the offsite tapes The twsites are connected
through the Internet
Where should encryption be applied on the Data Domain systems tensure a similar level of data security
as achieved by their current process?
A.Encrypt the data at rest
B.Encrypt the replication context
C.Encrypt the data at rest and the replication context
D.Encryption is not required
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer has a backup environment with an EMC Data Domain system usinq DD Boost as Illustrated In
the exhibit.Distributed Segment Processing IS enabled
Which component segments the data in the deduplication process?
A.LAN Clients
B.Backup Server
C.Data Domain system A
D.Data Domain system B
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer is attempting tcreate a read-only copy of their backup data on an EMC Data Domain system
tachieve additional protection.Which Data Domain system feature would accomplish this requirement?
A.Snapshot
B.Data Invulnerability Architecture
C.Fastcopy
D.Retention Lock
Answer: A

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NO.11 A customer has enabled CIFS and configured the CIFS shares on an EMC Data Domain system to
allow access through a Symantec NetBackup Media Server.What is a step that must be done on the
Media Server tenable read/write access tthe shared directory and configure the devices?
A.Configure a NetBackup disk pool to be used by the NetBackup devices
B.Enable the DD Boost plugin on the NetBackup Media Server
C.Create a mapped network drive that reconnects when the NetBackup service is started
D.Confi gure the NetBackup servi ces tstart as a user that has access tthe share
Answer: D

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NO.12 A customer is implementing an EMC Data Domain system over CIFS using Symantec NetBackup.How
would the Data Domain system be configured on the backup server?
A.adv_file device
B.Jukebox
C.Storage unit
D.Backup-to-diskfolder
Answer: C

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NO.13 A customer is currently using an EMC Data Domain system with VTL configured over Fibre
Channel.They have a requirement tarchive to tape Which process is used to transport data to tape?
A.Use the tape export function on the Data Domain system
B.Use the backup software to move backup data to tape
C.Use the Enterprise Manager on the Data Domain system
D.Use the VTL intertace to eject tapes to ptrysical tapes
Answer: B

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NO.14 An EMC Data Domain customer has setup a DVTL for their backup software.They created slots, drives,
and tapes.The backup software shows the tape drives and the robot, but not the tapes
Which step was missed on the Data Domain system?
A.Tape labels are not defined
B.Configure Fibre Channel LUN masking
C.Incorrect media type is defined
D.Import the virtuel tapes in the VTL
Answer: D

EMC examen   E22-290   E22-290   E22-290

NO.15 What does the term "compression factor" refer tin the exhibit?
A.Aggregate data reduction ratio
B.Data sent tthe EMC Data Domain system
C.Space used after compression
D.Total available space remaining
Answer: A

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